← SSC archive
Paper archive

SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-20 · Shift 3

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

100 question cards · 1 paper · No sign-in needed
Question 1archived

Select the related number from the given alternatives. 12.5 : 6.25 :: 7 : ?

  1. A
    3.5
  2. B
    3.25
  3. C
    6.5
  4. D
    12
Show answer
A. 3.5

The relation in the first pair is halving: \(12.5 \div 2 = 6.25\). Applying the same rule to 7: \(7 \div 2 = 3.5\). Therefore the missing term is 3.5.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 2archived

Select the related word from the given alternatives. Cotton : White :: Coal : ?

  1. A
    Fire
  2. B
    Mine
  3. C
    Wood
  4. D
    Black
Show answer
D. Black

The relation is Object : its characteristic colour. Cotton is typically white. Applying the same relation to Coal, its characteristic colour is Black. Fire, mine and wood describe a use, source or alternative fuel none of which is a colour so they fail the analogy.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 3archived

From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. LATCHING

  1. A
    THING
  2. B
    CHAIN
  3. C
    CHEAT
  4. D
    CLING
Show answer
C. CHEAT

Letters available in LATCHING: L, A, T, C, H, I, N, G (no E). THING (T,H,I,N,G), CHAIN (C,H,A,I,N) and CLING (C,L,I,N,G) use only letters from this set. CHEAT requires the letter E, which is not present in LATCHING, so it cannot be formed.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 4archived

A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. CDE, IHG, KLM, QPO, STU, ?

  1. A
    YXW
  2. B
    WXY
  3. C
    XYW
  4. D
    XWY
Show answer
A. YXW

Each term is three consecutive alphabet letters, alternating ascending and descending: CDE (asc), IHG (desc), KLM (asc), QPO (desc), STU (asc). So the next term must be descending. The first letters are C(3), I(9), K(11), Q(17), S(19) with gaps +6, +2, +6, +2. The next gap is +6, giving 19 + 6 = 25 = Y. Writing three letters descending from Y: YXW.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 5archived

If BOULDER is coded as ZMSJBCP, then how will ELK be coded as?

  1. A
    XIG
  2. B
    EOC
  3. C
    CJI
  4. D
    BXM
Show answer
C. CJI

Each letter of BOULDER is shifted back by 2 positions, with wrap-around (B→Z, O→M, U→S, L→J, D→B, E→C, R→P). Applying the same shift to ELK: E(5)→C(3), L(12)→J(10), K(11)→I(9). Hence ELK is coded as CJI.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 6archived

A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. Money, Amity, Camera, Animal, Telomere, ?

  1. A
    Talisman
  2. B
    Litmus
  3. C
    Matter
  4. D
    Shame
Show answer
A. Talisman

Compare letter counts and structure: Money(5), Amity(5), Camera(6), Animal(6), Telomere(8) the word lengths come in pairs, so the next word should also have 8 letters. Among the options only Talisman (8 letters) matches; Litmus (6), Matter (6) and Shame (5) do not. Talisman also shares three letters (T, L, M) with Telomere, extending the count of shared letters between consecutive words (2, 2, 3, 2, 3). Hence the answer is Talisman.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 7archived

Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    UTS
  2. B
    PNM
  3. C
    KIH
  4. D
    FDC
Show answer
A. UTS

Check the gap pattern between consecutive letters of each triplet: PNM: P(16)→N(14)→M(13), gaps \(-2, -1\). KIH: K(11)→I(9)→H(8), gaps \(-2, -1\). FDC: F(6)→D(4)→C(3), gaps \(-2, -1\). UTS: U(21)→T(20)→S(19), gaps \(-1, -1\). Three triplets follow the \(-2, -1\) rule; UTS is the odd one out.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 8archived

The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 40, 80 and 50 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

  1. A
    200
  2. B
    260
  3. C
    180
  4. D
    170
Show answer
A. 200

List all distinct subset sums of {40, 50, 80, 90}, choosing each box at most once: 40, 50, 80, 90, 90 (40+50), 120 (40+80), 130 (40+90 or 50+80), 140 (50+90), 170 (80+90 or 40+50+80), 180 (40+50+90), 210 (40+80+90), 220 (50+80+90), 260 (all four). From the options, 170, 180 and 260 appear in this list, but 200 does not. Hence 200 kg cannot be formed.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 9archived

A plane flies 100 km West, then it turns South and flies 150 km, then it turns West and flies 300 km, then it turns to its right and flies 150 km. Where is it now with reference to its starting position?

  1. A
    400 km East
  2. B
    200 km West
  3. C
    400 km West
  4. D
    200 km East
Show answer
C. 400 km West

Take the start as origin with East = +x, North = +y. Step 1 — 100 km West: position \((-100,\,0)\). Step 2 — 150 km South: position \((-100,\,-150)\). Step 3 — 300 km West: position \((-400,\,-150)\). Step 4 — right turn while heading West means North; fly 150 km: position \((-400,\,0)\). The plane is \(400\) km west of start with zero N–S offset, so it is 400 km West.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 10archived

Arnav's birthday is on Tuesday 14th March. On what day of the week will be Pranay's Birthday in the same year if Pranay was born on 13th September?

  1. A
    Monday
  2. B
    Tuesday
  3. C
    Wednesday
  4. D
    Thursday
Show answer
C. Wednesday

Count days from 14 March to 13 September in the same year: March remainder \(31-14=17\), April 30, May 31, June 30, July 31, August 31, September 13. Total = \(17+30+31+30+31+31+13 = 183\) days. Odd days: \(183 \bmod 7 = 1\) (since \(183 = 26\times 7 + 1\)). One day after Tuesday is Wednesday.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 11archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

In the complete part, the two semi-circles are facing each other, whereas in the missing part the two semicircles will be opposite to each other. Also a triangle inscribed will complete the missing picture. Thus option 4 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 12archived

In the following figure, square represents Runners, triangle represents Scientists, circle represents Indians, and rectangle represents Mothers. Which set of letters represents Indians who are runners?

Question figure
  1. A
    F, B, D, E
  2. B
    A, D
  3. C
    G, C, D
  4. D
    B, C, G, F
Show answer
B. A, D

Circle represents Indians. Square represents Runners. Thus, the set of letters represents Indians who are runners is A. D. Thus, the correct answer is A, D.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 13archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

When the piece of paper is folded in the direction of arrows mentioned. So, when it is opened, the base end of the triangle type image will be facing away from each other and the pointed end of the triangle will be facing towards each other. Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 14archived

Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    Apple
  2. B
    Mango
  3. C
    Orange
  4. D
    Almond
Show answer
D. Almond

Apple, Mango and Orange are all fleshy fruits. Almond is consumed as a nut/seed kernel, not a fleshy fruit, so it does not share the common attribute. Hence Almond is the odd one out.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 15archived

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Option 4 cannot be made, as the circle face and the line face cannot be adjacent to each other. Hence, answer is option 4.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 16archived

In a certain code language, '+' represents '×', '-' represents '+', '×' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question? 56 ÷ 8 + 12 - 72 = ?

  1. A
    32
  2. B
    88
  3. C
    44
  4. D
    82
Show answer
A. 32

Decode the operators: ÷ → −, + → ×, − → +. The expression becomes: \[56 - 8 \times 12 + 72\] Apply BODMAS multiplication first: \(8 \times 12 = 96\), giving \(56 - 96 + 72\). Left to right: \(56 - 96 = -40\), then \(-40 + 72 = 32\). Therefore the answer is 32.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 17archived

If 6#30 = 5; 8#24 = 3; 7#28 = 4; then what is the value of 8#40 = ?

  1. A
    47
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    5
  4. D
    24
Show answer
C. 5

6#30 = 5 = 30 ÷ 6 = 5 8#24 = 3 = 24 ÷ 8 = 3 7#28 = 4 = 28 ÷ 7 = 4 8#40 = 40 ÷ 8 = 5 Thus, 5 is the correct answer.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 18archived

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

The mirror when placed on the line MN, the lines on the left will appear on the right and on the right will appear on the left. The right vertical line will appear on the left and the right diagonal line will also appear on the left. Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 19archived

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 10, 22 et and ‘ Z’ can be represented by 85, 58 et. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘PERK’. Matrix - IMatrix - II 0123456789 0FGJEA5XWRZT 1KJALI6OQUTN 2DDKHC7XOTVO 3BAIGL8ZSNOV 4MEJLD9PYOTY

  1. A
    13, 02, 66, 68
  2. B
    95, 41, 57, 22
  3. C
    32, 02, 87, 56
  4. D
    30, 04, 75, 96
Show answer
B. 95, 41, 57, 22

Encode each letter of PERK using row-then-column from the matrices. P appears only in Matrix-II at (9,5) → 95. E appears in Matrix-I at (0,3) and (4,1) → codes 03 or 41. R appears only in Matrix-II at (5,7) → 57. K appears in Matrix-I at (1,0) and (2,2) → codes 10 or 22. The set 95, 41, 57, 22 fits P–E–R–K exactly, matching option 2.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 20archived

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    21
  2. B
    39
  3. C
    65
  4. D
    51
Show answer
C. 65

Check divisibility by 3 (sum of digits rule): \(21 = 3 \times 7\), \(39 = 3 \times 13\), \(51 = 3 \times 17\) — all multiples of 3. \(65 = 5 \times 13\), with digit sum \(6+5=11\), not divisible by 3. Hence 65 is the odd one out.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 21archived

Select the missing number from the given responses. 134 34 100 117 86 31 87 ? 64

  1. A
    120
  2. B
    23
  3. C
    55
  4. D
    30
Show answer
B. 23

In each row, column 1 − column 2 = column 3. Row 1: \(134 - 34 = 100\). Row 2: \(117 - 86 = 31\). Row 3: \(87 - ? = 64 \implies ? = 87 - 64 = 23\). Therefore the missing number is 23.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 22archived

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Thus, the question figure is hidden/embedded in option number 4.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 23archived

Select the related letters from the given alternatives. WVT : SRP :: MLJ : ?

  1. A
    KHG
  2. B
    IHG
  3. C
    IHF
  4. D
    HEF
Show answer
C. IHF

Compare alphabetical positions of WVT (23, 22, 20) with SRP (19, 18, 16). Each letter shifts back by 4. Apply the same −4 shift to MLJ (13, 12, 10): positions become 9, 8, 6, giving I, H, F. Hence the answer is IHF.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 24archived

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement 1: All dawn are day. Statement 2: No day is a night. Conclusion I: No night is a day. Conclusion II: Some dawn are night.

  1. A
    Only conclusion I follows
  2. B
    Only conclusion II follows
  3. C
    Both I and II follow
  4. D
    Neither I nor II follows
Show answer
A. Only conclusion I follows

Let Dawn = D, Day = Y, Night = N. Statement 1: all D are Y. Statement 2: no Y is N. Conclusion I (No night is a day): “No Y is N” converts to “No N is Y”. Follows. Conclusion II (Some dawn are night): All D lie inside Y, and Y is disjoint from N, so D is disjoint from N. “Some D are N” cannot follow. Hence only Conclusion I follows.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 25archived

A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 6, 18, 54, ?, 486, 1458

  1. A
    164
  2. B
    160
  3. C
    168
  4. D
    162
Show answer
D. 162

Each term is the previous term multiplied by 3 (geometric progression, ratio 3): \(6 \times 3 = 18,\ 18 \times 3 = 54,\ 54 \times 3 = 162,\ 162 \times 3 = 486,\ 486 \times 3 = 1458\). The missing term is 162.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 26archived

______ was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as a part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign.

  1. A
    Sukanya Samridhi Account
  2. B
    Bal Swachta Mission
  3. C
    Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
  4. D
    Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana
Show answer
A. Sukanya Samridhi Account

The correct answer is the Sukanya Samriddhi Account. Inaugurated in 2015, the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a small deposit scheme of the Government of India designed specifically for a girl child. It was launched as part of the 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' (Save the Daughter, Educate the Daughter) campaign. Administered by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the scheme aims to cover the education and marriage expenses of a girl child.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 27archived

The coil of wire in an electric room heater or electric cooking heater is called _______.

  1. A
    Circuit
  2. B
    Element
  3. C
    Filament
  4. D
    Cells
Show answer
B. Element

The heat-producing coil in an electric room or cooking heater is called the heating element. It is made of a high-resistance alloy (typically nichrome) wound into a coil; current through it generates heat via Joule heating, \(H = I^2 R t\). A “filament” refers to the thin wire in incandescent bulbs (designed to glow as light), while a “circuit” is the whole current path and “cells” are energy sources, not heaters.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 28archived

In 1916 Mahatma Gandhi travelled to_______ to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

  1. A
    Dandi
  2. B
    Sabarmati
  3. C
    Champaran
  4. D
    Chauri Chaura
Show answer
C. Champaran

In 1916, persuaded by Rajkumar Shukla, Mahatma Gandhi travelled to Champaran in Bihar to investigate the plight of indigo cultivators under the oppressive tinkathia plantation system. This led to the Champaran Satyagraha (1917), his first major civil-disobedience campaign in India. Dandi is linked to the 1930 Salt March; Sabarmati is the site of his ashram; Chauri Chaura saw the 1922 violence that ended the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 29archived

The land mass of India has an area of _______ million square km.

  1. A
    1.28
  2. B
    2.28
  3. C
    3.28
  4. D
    4.28
Show answer
C. 3.28

India's total geographical area is about 3.28 million sq km (precisely 3,287,263 sq km), making it the seventh-largest country in the world and covering roughly 2.4% of the global land area.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 30archived

"Betting and gambling" is listed in the _______ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.

  1. A
    Union
  2. B
    State
  3. C
    Global
  4. D
    Concurrent
Show answer
B. State

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, “Betting and gambling” appears as Entry 34 of the State List, giving State Legislatures exclusive power to legislate on it. The Union List covers national subjects (defence, railways), the Concurrent List covers shared subjects (criminal law, education); there is no “Global” list.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 31archived

Who created the first mechanical computer, which proved to be the prototype for future computers?

  1. A
    Archimedes
  2. B
    John Harrison
  3. C
    Cai Lun
  4. D
    Charles Babbage
Show answer
D. Charles Babbage

Charles Babbage, a 19th-century English mathematician, designed the first mechanical computers — the Difference Engine (an automatic calculator) and the Analytical Engine, which featured an arithmetic “mill”, memory “store”, conditional branching and punched-card programming. These designs became the prototype for modern computers, earning him the title “father of the computer”. Archimedes built mechanical devices but no computer; John Harrison invented the marine chronometer; Cai Lun is credited with inventing paper.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 32archived

To whom the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2016 was awarded?

  1. A
    David J. Thouless
  2. B
    Yoshinori Ohsumi
  3. C
    J. Michael Kosterlitz
  4. D
    Sir J. Fraser Stoddart
Show answer
B. Yoshinori Ohsumi

The 2016 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Yoshinori Ohsumi of Japan “for his discoveries of mechanisms for autophagy” — the cellular self-degradation and recycling process he mapped using yeast genetics. Thouless and Kosterlitz shared the 2016 Physics Nobel (topological phases); Fraser Stoddart shared the 2016 Chemistry Nobel (molecular machines).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 33archived

_______ is obtained by evaporation of seawater.

  1. A
    Sugar
  2. B
    Iron
  3. C
    Salt
  4. D
    Steel
Show answer
C. Salt

Seawater contains about 3.5% dissolved salts, mainly sodium chloride (NaCl). In shallow salt pans, sunlight and wind evaporate the water while the non-volatile salts stay behind and crystallise — this is how common salt is harvested commercially. Sugar comes from plants, iron from ores, and steel is a manufactured iron-carbon alloy — none is produced by evaporating seawater.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 34archived

______ is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

  1. A
    Sri Lanka
  2. B
    Myanmar
  3. C
    Bangladesh
  4. D
    Pakistan
Show answer
A. Sri Lanka

The Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar lie between the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu and the northwestern coast of Sri Lanka, forming the narrow sea channel that separates the two countries. Myanmar, Bangladesh and Pakistan share land borders with India and are not bounded by these water bodies.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 35archived

Which of the following river originates in Nepal and flows into the Ganges?

  1. A
    Kosi
  2. B
    Jhelum
  3. C
    Chenab
  4. D
    Ravi
Show answer
A. Kosi

The Kosi rises in the eastern Nepal Himalayas (formed by the Sun Kosi, Arun and Tamur) and flows south into Bihar, where it joins the Ganga — making it a major Himalayan left-bank tributary of the Ganges. The Jhelum, Chenab and Ravi all belong to the Indus river system and originate in India (Kashmir / Himachal Pradesh), not Nepal.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 36archived

______ software are freely available and can be edited and customized by anyone.

  1. A
    Free Source
  2. B
    Open Source
  3. C
    Easy Source
  4. D
    Unpaid Source
Show answer
B. Open Source

Open Source software is distributed with its source code under a licence that allows anyone to view, modify, customise, and redistribute it freely. Examples include Linux, Mozilla Firefox, and LibreOffice. "Free Source", "Easy Source", and "Unpaid Source" are not recognised software-licensing terms.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 37archived

Which of the statements given below are correct? 1. The author of 'A Foreign Policy for India' is L.K. Advani. 2. 'Wings of Fire' is a book written by A.P.J. Abdul kalaam. 3. 'Open' is an Autobiography of Andre Agassi.

  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    2 and 3
  3. C
    1 and 3
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Show answer
B. 2 and 3

Statement 1 is incorrect — 'A Foreign Policy for India' was written by former PM I.K. Gujral, not L.K. Advani. Statement 2 is correct — 'Wings of Fire' is the autobiography of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, co-authored with Arun Tiwari. Statement 3 is correct — 'Open' (2009) is the autobiography of American tennis great Andre Agassi. Hence only 2 and 3 are correct.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 38archived

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from _______ in January 1915.

  1. A
    South Africa
  2. B
    England
  3. C
    USA
  4. D
    Russia
Show answer
A. South Africa

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India on 9 January 1915 from South Africa, where he had lived since 1893 and developed the philosophy of Satyagraha. The day is now observed as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas. He had earlier returned from England (after legal studies) in 1891, well before 1915. He had no significant stay in the USA or Russia.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 39archived

In which sport did India win Bronze medal at Rio Olympics 2016?

  1. A
    Badminton
  2. B
    Boxing
  3. C
    Hockey
  4. D
    Wrestling
Show answer
D. Wrestling

At the Rio 2016 Olympics, India won two medals — a silver by P.V. Sindhu in badminton (women's singles) and a bronze by Sakshi Malik in wrestling (women's 58 kg freestyle). Sakshi's bronze was the first-ever Olympic medal for an Indian woman wrestler. India won no medals in boxing or hockey at Rio 2016.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 40archived

According to Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, with spending of $55.9 Billion in 2016, which country became world’s fifth-largest military spender?

  1. A
    China
  2. B
    USA
  3. C
    Russia
  4. D
    India
Show answer
D. India

Per SIPRI's 2016 report, the top five military spenders were USA (\(\$611.2\) bn), China (\(\$215.7\) bn), Russia (\(\$69.2\) bn), Saudi Arabia (\(\$63.7\) bn) and India (\(\$55.9\) bn). With spending of \(\$55.9\) billion, India became the world's fifth-largest military spender in 2016.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 41archived

Ajanta and Ellora caves are situated in which state of India?

  1. A
    Kerala
  2. B
    Odisha
  3. C
    Maharashtra
  4. D
    Jammu & Kashmir
Show answer
C. Maharashtra

The Ajanta and Ellora caves are rock-cut cave complexes located near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. Both are UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Ajanta (2nd century BCE–480 CE) features Buddhist murals and sculptures; Ellora (600–1000 CE) contains Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments, including the monolithic Kailasa Temple.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 42archived

______ being a higher category, is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters.

  1. A
    Order
  2. B
    Species
  3. C
    Genus
  4. D
    Class
Show answer
A. Order

In the taxonomic hierarchy (Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom), each rank is an assemblage of the rank below it. An Order is the category immediately above Family — it groups together related families sharing a few similar characters. Genus and Species are lower than Family, and Class is an assemblage of Orders, not Families.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 43archived

If the _______ firm has zero costs or only has fixed cost, the quantity supplied in equilibrium is given by the point where the marginal revenue is zero.

  1. A
    Perfect Competition
  2. B
    Monopoly
  3. C
    Oligopoly
  4. D
    Monopolistic Competition
Show answer
B. Monopoly

A firm maximises profit where \(MR = MC\). With zero or only fixed costs, marginal cost \(MC = 0\), so equilibrium output is set where \(MR = 0\) — the quantity that maximises total revenue. This applies to a Monopoly, which faces a downward-sloping demand curve and a distinct MR curve. Under perfect competition, MR equals price and never falls to zero except at zero price, so the condition is not meaningful there.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 44archived

Sexual reproduction in Algae that takes place through fusion of two dissimilar size gametes is called?

  1. A
    Zoospores
  2. B
    Anisogamous
  3. C
    Isogamous
  4. D
    Oogamous
Show answer
B. Anisogamous

When two fusing gametes differ in size, sexual reproduction is called anisogamous (aniso = unequal). Isogamous involves morphologically similar gametes; oogamous is a special case where the female gamete is large and non-motile and the male small and motile; zoospores are asexual motile spores, not gametes. "Anisogamous" is the general term the question asks for.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 45archived

The passage of an electric current through a conducting liquid causes _______.

  1. A
    Galvanisation
  2. B
    Evaporation
  3. C
    Physical Reaction
  4. D
    Chemical Reaction
Show answer
D. Chemical Reaction

A conducting liquid (electrolyte) contains free ions. When current passes through it, cations migrate to the cathode and anions to the anode, where they gain or lose electrons. This produces new substances — a chemical reaction known as electrolysis (e.g., electrolysis of water yields H2 and O2). Galvanisation is a specific application of electrolysis; evaporation is a secondary thermal effect, not the primary chemical effect.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 46archived

The short run marginal cost curve is _______ shaped.

  1. A
    U
  2. B
    V
  3. C
    X
  4. D
    W
Show answer
A. U

The short-run marginal cost (SRMC) curve is U-shaped due to the Law of Variable Proportions. Initially, as variable input is added to fixed factors, marginal product rises and MC falls. Beyond a point, diminishing marginal returns set in, marginal product falls and MC rises. This fall-then-rise pattern produces the characteristic U shape.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 47archived

There are total ______ parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha constituency) in West Bengal.

  1. A
    42
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    14
  4. D
    40
Show answer
A. 42

West Bengal sends 42 members to the Lok Sabha, making it the third-largest contributor of seats after Uttar Pradesh (80) and Maharashtra (48). It also has 16 Rajya Sabha seats. The options 2, 14, and 40 do not match the constituency allocation for West Bengal.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 48archived

The animals in which the body cavity is absent are known as _______.

  1. A
    Coelomates
  2. B
    Wild
  3. C
    Pseudocoelomates
  4. D
    Acoelomates
Show answer
D. Acoelomates

Animals are classified by body-cavity status: coelomates (true coelom fully lined by mesoderm), pseudocoelomates (cavity not fully lined by mesoderm) and acoelomates (no body cavity). Animals lacking a body cavity — the space between gut and body wall being filled with mesodermal parenchyma — are called Acoelomates. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are the classic example.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 49archived

______ is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

  1. A
    Natality
  2. B
    Mortality
  3. C
    Immigration
  4. D
    Emigration
Show answer
D. Emigration

In population ecology, emigration denotes individuals leaving a habitat to settle elsewhere during the period considered, reducing the source population. Natality is the birth rate (adds individuals), mortality is the death rate (removes individuals locally), and immigration is movement into the habitat. Only emigration describes outward movement.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 50archived

According to the Second Law of Motion, for a given force, acceleration is inversely proportional to the _________ of an object.

  1. A
    Density
  2. B
    Volume
  3. C
    Force
  4. D
    Mass
Show answer
D. Mass

Newton's Second Law states \(F = ma\), which rearranges to \(a = \dfrac{F}{m}\). For a given (constant) force, acceleration varies inversely with mass — heavier objects accelerate less for the same applied force. Density and volume do not appear in the law, and the question fixes the force, so the answer is mass.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 51archived

Of the 3 numbers whose average is 40, the first is 1/3 rd the sum of other 2. What is the first number?

  1. A
    20
  2. B
    50
  3. C
    25
  4. D
    30
Show answer
D. 30

Let the three numbers be \(n_1, n_2, n_3\) with average 40, so \(n_1+n_2+n_3=120\). Given \(n_1=\tfrac{1}{3}(n_2+n_3)\), i.e. \(n_2+n_3=3n_1\). Substituting: \(n_1+3n_1=120 \Rightarrow 4n_1=120 \Rightarrow n_1=30\). The first number is 30.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 52archived

A student has to secure 40% marks to pass. He gets 67 and fails by 13 marks. What is the maximum marks?

  1. A
    300
  2. B
    200
  3. C
    150
  4. D
    240
Show answer
B. 200

Failing by 13 marks with a score of 67 means the passing mark is \(67+13=80\). Since 40% of the maximum marks equals the passing mark: \[0.40 \times M = 80 \Rightarrow M=\frac{80}{0.40}=200\] Therefore the maximum marks are 200.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 53archived

If (-1/2) × (x - 5) + 3 = -5/2, then what is the value of x?

  1. A
    16
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    -6
  4. D
    -4
Show answer
A. 16

Starting from \(-\tfrac{1}{2}(x-5)+3=-\tfrac{5}{2}\), subtract 3 from both sides: \[-\tfrac{1}{2}(x-5)=-\tfrac{5}{2}-3=-\tfrac{11}{2}\] Multiply both sides by \(-2\): \[x-5=11 \Rightarrow x=16\] So x = 16.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 54archived

If the shopkeeper sells an item at Rs. 4400 which is marked as Rs 5000, then what is the discount that he is offering?

  1. A
    20%
  2. B
    12%
  3. C
    15%
  4. D
    10%
Show answer
B. 12%

Discount amount = MP − SP = \(5000-4400=600\). Discount % is computed on the marked price: \[\text{Discount \%}=\frac{600}{5000}\times 100=12\%\] Hence the shopkeeper offers a 12% discount.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 55archived

9997 x 10003 = ?

  1. A
    9999991
  2. B
    99999911
  3. C
    99999991
  4. D
    9999911
Show answer
C. 99999991

Write the product as \((10000-3)(10000+3)\) and apply the difference-of-squares identity \((a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2\): \[9997\times 10003=10000^2-3^2=100000000-9=99999991\] So the answer is 99999991.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 56archived

What is the sum of the 13 terms of an arithmetic progression, if the first term is -10 and the last term is 26?

  1. A
    104
  2. B
    84
  3. C
    140
  4. D
    98
Show answer
A. 104

With first term \(a=-10\), last term \(l=26\), and \(n=13\), use: \[S_n=\frac{n}{2}(a+l)=\frac{13}{2}(-10+26)=\frac{13}{2}\times 16=13\times 8=104\] The sum is 104.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 57archived

A can do a work in 36 days and B in 12 days. If they work on it together, then in how many days will they be able to do the work?

  1. A
    8
  2. B
    6
  3. C
    10
  4. D
    9
Show answer
D. 9

A's one-day work is \(\tfrac{1}{36}\) and B's is \(\tfrac{1}{12}\). Combined rate: \[\frac{1}{36}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{1+3}{36}=\frac{4}{36}=\frac{1}{9}\] Time together = reciprocal of the combined rate = 9 days.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 58archived

In what ratio does the point T(x, 0) divide the segment joining the points S(-4, -1) and U(1, 4)?

  1. A
    1 : 4
  2. B
    4 : 1
  3. C
    1 : 2
  4. D
    2 : 1
Show answer
A. 1 : 4

Let T divide SU in ratio \(k:1\) with S\((-4,-1)\) and U\((1,4)\). The y-coordinate of T is 0, so by the section formula: \[0=\frac{k(4)+1(-1)}{k+1} \Rightarrow 4k-1=0 \Rightarrow k=\tfrac{1}{4}\] Hence the ratio is \(\tfrac{1}{4}:1\), i.e. 1 : 4.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 59archived

If tanθ = 4/3, then what is the value of Sinθ?

  1. A
    1.25
  2. B
    0.8
  3. C
    4/3
  4. D
    3/4
Show answer
B. 0.8

Given \(\tan\theta=\tfrac{4}{3}=\tfrac{\text{opposite}}{\text{adjacent}}\), take opposite = 4, adjacent = 3. By Pythagoras: \[\text{hyp}=\sqrt{4^2+3^2}=\sqrt{25}=5\] Therefore \(\sin\theta=\tfrac{4}{5}=\) 0.8 (a 3-4-5 triple).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 60archived

The company's expenditure on interest is greater than expenditure on rent by

  1. A
    100%
  2. B
    50%
  3. C
    200%
  4. D
    150%
Show answer
A. 100%

Let the total expenditure be a Company's expenditure on Interest = a × (10/100) = 0.1a Company's expenditure on rent = a × (5/100) = 0.05a ∴ Required % = [(0.1a - 0.05)/0.05] × 100 = 100%

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 61archived

If the total expenses of the company are Rs. 50 crores, the total expenditure (in Rs. crores) on Transport and Electricity is:

  1. A
    7.5
  2. B
    12.5
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    10
Show answer
C. 20

Given: total expenses of the company = 50 crore Total expenditure (in Rs. crores) on Transport and Electricity = 50 × [15/100 + 25/100] ⇒ 50 × [40/100] ⇒ Rs. 20 crores

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 62archived

The flight fare between two cities is increased in the ratio 9 : 11. What is the increase (in Rs) in the fare, if the original fare was Rs. 18,000?

  1. A
    22000
  2. B
    3600
  3. C
    4000
  4. D
    20000
Show answer
C. 4000

The ratio 9 : 11 means the original fare is 9 parts and the new fare is 11 parts, so the increase is \(11-9=2\) parts. One part \(=\tfrac{18000}{9}=2000\). Increase \(=2\times 2000=\) Rs 4000.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 63archived

Which is the second biggest expense of the company?

  1. A
    Raw materials
  2. B
    Salaries
  3. C
    Transport
  4. D
    Electricity
Show answer
D. Electricity

All the percentages in decreasing order: 30%, 25%, 15%, 15%, 10%, 5% Here, the second biggest expense is of 25% ∴ Electricity is the one with 25% expense

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 64archived

At what point does the line 2x - 3y = 6 cut the Y axis?

  1. A
    (0, 2)
  2. B
    (-2, 0)
  3. C
    (2, 0)
  4. D
    (0, -2)
Show answer
D. (0, -2)

On the Y-axis the x-coordinate is 0. Substituting \(x=0\) in \(2x-3y=6\): \[-3y=6 \Rightarrow y=-2\] The line meets the Y-axis at (0, −2).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 65archived

The areas of two similar triangles ΔABC and ΔPQR are 36 sq cms and 9 sq cms respectively. If PQ = 4 cm then what is the length of AB (in cm)?

  1. A
    16
  2. B
    12
  3. C
    8
  4. D
    6
Show answer
C. 8

For similar triangles the ratio of areas equals the square of the ratio of corresponding sides: \[\frac{[\Delta ABC]}{[\Delta PQR]}=\left(\frac{AB}{PQ}\right)^2 \Rightarrow \frac{36}{9}=\left(\frac{AB}{4}\right)^2\] So \(\tfrac{AB}{4}=\sqrt{4}=2\), giving AB = 8 cm.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 66archived

ΔLMN is right angled at M. If ∠N = 60°, then tanL =______.

  1. A
    1/2
  2. B
    1/√3
  3. C
    1/√2
  4. D
    2
Show answer
B. 1/√3

Angles in \(\Delta LMN\) sum to 180°. With \(\angle M=90^\circ\) and \(\angle N=60^\circ\): \[\angle L=180^\circ-90^\circ-60^\circ=30^\circ\] Therefore \(\tan L=\tan 30^\circ=\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 67archived

A trader buys 500 kg of cotton for Rs 9,000. 10% of this cotton is spoiled due to rain. At what rate (Rs/Kg) should he sell the rest to earn 10% profit?

  1. A
    25
  2. B
    30
  3. C
    22
  4. D
    20
Show answer
C. 22

Step 1 — Remaining quantity: 10% of 500 kg = 50 kg spoiled, so usable cotton = \(500-50=450\) kg. Step 2 — Target revenue for 10% profit: \[\text{SP}=9000\times 1.10=9900\] Step 3 — Rate per kg: \[\frac{9900}{450}=22\] The trader must sell at Rs 22/kg.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 68archived

A number is 3/4 greater than 58 times the reciprocal of the number. What is the number?

  1. A
    -8
  2. B
    12
  3. C
    -12
  4. D
    8
Show answer
D. 8

Let the number be \(x\). The condition "x is 3/4 greater than 58 times its reciprocal" gives: \[x=\frac{58}{x}+\frac{3}{4}\] Multiply by \(4x\): \[4x^2=232+3x \Rightarrow 4x^2-3x-232=0\] Using the quadratic formula with discriminant \(9+4\cdot 4\cdot 232=3721=61^2\): \[x=\frac{3\pm 61}{8}=8 \text{ or } -\tfrac{29}{4}\] Among the options, the integer solution is 8.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 69archived

A spaceship travels at 1,260 km/h. How many metres does it travel in 1/10 th of a second?

  1. A
    126
  2. B
    35
  3. C
    36
  4. D
    125
Show answer
B. 35

Step 1 — Convert speed to m/s: \(1260 \text{ km/h} = 1260 \times \dfrac{5}{18} = 350 \text{ m/s}\) Step 2 — Apply distance = speed × time: \(d = 350 \times \dfrac{1}{10} = 35 \text{ m}\) Therefore the spaceship covers 35 metres in 1/10 second.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 70archived

What is the value of cot45° + cosec60°?

  1. A
    (√6 + 1)/√3
  2. B
    (1 + √3)/2
  3. C
    5/√3
  4. D
    (√3 + 2)/√3
Show answer
D. (√3 + 2)/√3

Recall the standard values: \(\cot 45^\circ = 1\) and \(\operatorname{cosec} 60^\circ = \dfrac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\). \[\cot 45^\circ + \operatorname{cosec} 60^\circ = 1 + \dfrac{2}{\sqrt{3}} = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}+2}{\sqrt{3}}\] Therefore the value is \(\dfrac{\sqrt{3}+2}{\sqrt{3}}\).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 71archived

What is the area (in sq cm) of a rhombus if the lengths of the diagonals are 12 cm and 14 cm?

  1. A
    42
  2. B
    168
  3. C
    84
  4. D
    63
Show answer
C. 84

The area of a rhombus equals half the product of its diagonals: \[A = \tfrac{1}{2} d_1 d_2 = \tfrac{1}{2} \times 12 \times 14 = 84 \text{ sq cm}\] Therefore the area is 84 sq cm.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 72archived

What is the reflection of the point (-0.5, 6) in the x-axis?

  1. A
    (0.5, -6)
  2. B
    (-6, -0.5)
  3. C
    (6, -0.5)
  4. D
    (-0.5, -6)
Show answer
D. (-0.5, -6)

Reflection in the x-axis maps \((x, y) \to (x, -y)\) — the x-coordinate stays, the y-coordinate flips sign. Applying this to \((-0.5, 6)\) gives \((-0.5, -6)\).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 73archived

If the amount received at the end of 2nd and 3rd year at Compound Interest on a certain Principal is Rs 1,800, and Rs 1,926 respectively, what is the rate of interest?

  1. A
    7.5%
  2. B
    7%
  3. C
    6%
  4. D
    6.5%
Show answer
B. 7%

Under compound interest, the amount at the end of year 2 acts as the principal for year 3. So the interest accrued in the 3rd year is: \(1926 - 1800 = 126\) Apply rate formula: \[r = \dfrac{126}{1800} \times 100 = 7\%\] Therefore the rate of interest is 7% per annum.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 74archived

If a - b = 1 and ab = 6, then what is the value of a 3 - b 3?

  1. A
    21
  2. B
    23
  3. C
    19
  4. D
    25
Show answer
C. 19

Use the identity \(a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)^3 + 3ab(a-b)\). Substituting \(a-b = 1\) and \(ab = 6\): \[a^3 - b^3 = 1^3 + 3(6)(1) = 1 + 18 = 19\] Therefore \(a^3 - b^3 = \mathbf{19}\).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 75archived

The ratio of company's expenditure on Raw material to Transport is:

  1. A
    2 : 1
  2. B
    1 : 1
  3. C
    1 : 2
  4. D
    3 : 1
Show answer
A. 2 : 1

Let the total expenditure be a Company's expenditure on Raw material = a × (30/100) = 0.3a Company's expenditure on transport = a × (15/100) = 0.15a ∴ Required ratio = 0.3a/0.15a = 2 : 1

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 76archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Give somebody a ring

  1. A
    Propose marriage
  2. B
    Inform about the death of a loved one
  3. C
    Call someone on the telephone
  4. D
    Trap somebody in a difficult relationship
Show answer
C. Call someone on the telephone

The idiom give somebody a ring is informal British English for placing a telephone call (the "ring" refers to the phone's ringtone). It has nothing to do with marriage proposals or trapping someone. Hence the correct meaning is Call someone on the telephone.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 77archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Fustian

  1. A
    Unpretentious
  2. B
    Timid
  3. C
    Arrogant
  4. D
    Courteous
Show answer
C. Arrogant

Fustian means pompous, bombastic or pretentiously inflated language — the kind of self-important speech an arrogant person uses. Of the options, only Arrogant captures this haughty, self-important quality. Unpretentious and courteous are antonyms; timid is unrelated.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 78archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. A substance easily evaporated at normal temperatures

  1. A
    Volatile
  2. B
    Steadfast
  3. C
    Enduring
  4. D
    Definite
Show answer
A. Volatile

Volatile describes a substance that evaporates readily at ordinary temperatures (e.g. petrol, acetone) — an exact match for the definition. Steadfast and enduring imply permanence, the opposite of evaporating; definite means clearly stated and is unrelated to physical change. Hence Volatile.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 79archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Cajole

  1. A
    Disenchant
  2. B
    Entice
  3. C
    Repulse
  4. D
    Bully
Show answer
B. Entice

Cajole means to persuade someone through coaxing or flattery. Among the options, Entice — to attract or tempt by offering pleasure or advantage — shares the same core idea of winning someone over by gentle persuasion. Disenchant and repulse are antonyms; bully implies coercion, not coaxing.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 80archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Leave no stone unturned

  1. A
    Search for the hidden treasure
  2. B
    Do a futile task
  3. C
    Be known for achieving a tremendous feat
  4. D
    Try every possible course of action in order to achieve something
Show answer
D. Try every possible course of action in order to achieve something

The idiom leave no stone unturned means to make every possible effort, exploring every avenue, to achieve a goal. It describes the exhaustive nature of the attempt, not the outcome or the search object. Hence the best match is Try every possible course of action in order to achieve something.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 81archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt . Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    theurise
  2. B
    theoris
  3. C
    theuris
  4. D
    theorise
Show answer
D. theorise

The verb meaning "to form a theory" is spelt theorise (British) or theorize (American). The root is theor- (as in theory), followed by the standard verb-forming suffix -ise. The other options misspell either the root (theur-) or the suffix (-is). Hence theorise.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 82archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Such are the strata which we X -species as those now living in the Mediterranean Y -meet within the south of Sicily, filled Z -with shells for the most part of the same

  1. A
    YXZ
  2. B
    XZY
  3. C
    XYZ
  4. D
    YZX
Show answer
D. YZX

The opening clause ends with "which we" and needs a verb — only Y ("meet within the south of Sicily, filled") supplies one, so Y comes first. Y ends with "filled", which naturally takes "with shells" — leading to Z. Z ends with "of the same", which demands a noun, supplied by X ("species as those now living in the Mediterranean"). Hence the order is YZX: "Such are the strata which we meet within the south of Sicily, filled with shells for the most part of the same species as those now living in the Mediterranean."

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 83archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Vigilance

  1. A
    Indifference
  2. B
    Diligence
  3. C
    Acuity
  4. D
    Circumspection
Show answer
A. Indifference

Vigilance means active watchfulness, alertness and concern for possible danger. Its direct opposite is Indifference — a lack of interest or concern. Diligence, acuity and circumspection are all near-synonyms (careful effort, sharpness, cautious prudence), not antonyms. Hence Indifference.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 84archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. The movie critic wrote a sarcastic review.

  1. A
    A sarcastic review is written by the movie critic.
  2. B
    A review which is sarcastic was written by the movie critic.
  3. C
    A review which is sarcastic is written by the movie critic.
  4. D
    A sarcastic review was written by the movie critic.
Show answer
D. A sarcastic review was written by the movie critic.

The active sentence is in the simple past ("wrote"). The passive structure for simple past is: Object + was/were + past participle + by + Subject. Object "a sarcastic review" (singular) becomes the new subject; "wrote" becomes "was written"; "by the movie critic" follows. Hence: A sarcastic review was written by the movie critic. Options using "is written" wrongly shift to present tense; the inserted "which is sarcastic" clause distorts the original structure.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 85archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect /Direct speech. The trainee asked his boss, "Shall I email this letter again, Sir?"

  1. A
    The trainee asked his boss politely if he shall email that letter again.
  2. B
    The trainee asked his boss politely if he should email that letter again, sir.
  3. C
    The trainee asked his boss politely if he shall email that letter again, sir.
  4. D
    The trainee asked his boss politely if he should email that letter again.
Show answer
D. The trainee asked his boss politely if he should email that letter again.

When converting a yes/no question with a modal verb into indirect speech, use 'if' as the connector, shift 'shall' to 'should', change 'this' to 'that', and replace the address word 'Sir' with 'politely' attached to the reporting verb. Applying these rules: "Shall I email this letter again, Sir?" becomes "The trainee asked his boss politely if he should email that letter again." Options 1 and 3 wrongly retain 'shall' instead of backshifting to 'should'. Option 2 keeps 'sir' in the reported clause even though 'politely' already accounts for it. Option 4 is correct.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 86archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Cavalier

  1. A
    Condescending
  2. B
    Curt
  3. C
    Humble
  4. D
    Haughty
Show answer
C. Humble

Cavalier means showing a dismissive, arrogant, or haughty lack of proper concern. Its antonym must convey modesty and respect. Humble means having a modest estimate of one's own importance — the direct opposite of cavalier arrogance. 'Condescending' and 'haughty' are synonyms (both denote superiority), and 'curt' means rudely brief — none qualifies as an opposite. Hence the antonym is Humble.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 87archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". Someone must (being) killed.

  1. A
    have been
  2. B
    has been
  3. C
    been
  4. D
    no improvement
Show answer
A. have been

The sentence requires the modal + perfect passive structure: modal + have been + past participle, used to express a deduction about a past event. Inserting "have been" gives "Someone must have been killed," a grammatically correct deduction. "has been" fails because a modal must be followed by the base form 'have', not 'has'. "been" alone omits the required 'have'. "No improvement" is wrong because the original "must being killed" is ungrammatical. The correct improvement is have been.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 88archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. They had seen enough of the X -them to come to a step farther Y -desert already, and no number Z -of knives would have tempted

  1. A
    YXZ
  2. B
    YZX
  3. C
    XZY
  4. D
    XYZ
Show answer
B. YZX

The opener "They had seen enough of the" needs a noun — Y ("desert already, and no number") supplies it. Y ends with "no number," which demands a partitive phrase; Z ("of knives would have tempted") fits naturally. Z's verb "tempted" needs an object, supplied by X ("them to come to a step farther"). The full sentence reads: "They had seen enough of the desert already, and no number of knives would have tempted them to come to a step farther." Hence the order is YZX.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 89archived

The Bengalureans would refer to the Queen Victoria statue as ___________.

  1. A
    wealth of history
  2. B
    a landmark
  3. C
    Symbol of British rule
  4. D
    Bengaluru culture
Show answer
B. a landmark

The passage states that despite the statue's historical importance and imposing appearance, "the busy Bengalureans would probably refer to it as just another landmark." This directly matches option 2, a landmark. "Wealth of history" describes the statue's significance, not how locals refer to it. "Symbol of British rule" and "Bengaluru culture" are not mentioned in the passage.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 90archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. While an electron (1)/ carries a negative electrical (2) charge, a neutron is neutral. (3)/No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
D. 4

Each segment is grammatically sound. Part (1) correctly uses the subordinating conjunction "While" with the article "an" before the vowel sound. Part (2) shows correct subject-verb agreement ("an electron carries") and a valid adjective phrase "a negative electrical [charge]." Part (3) properly closes the contrast clause with a comma and forms a clean main clause, "a neutron is neutral." No grammatical error exists in the sentence, so the answer is No Error (4).

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 91archived

Queen Victoria ruled Great Britain for how many years?

  1. A
    64 years
  2. B
    34 years
  3. C
    54 years
  4. D
    44 years
Show answer
A. 64 years

The passage states Queen Victoria was "the Monarch of Great Britain from 1837 till 1901." The duration of her reign is: \(1901 - 1837 = 64\) years. Therefore she ruled for 64 years, matching option 1.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 92archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". She and Dad would (has had loved) Amit.

  1. A
    has loved
  2. B
    have loved
  3. C
    to loved
  4. D
    no improvement
Show answer
B. have loved

The modal 'would' in a hypothetical past context requires the conditional perfect: would + have + past participle. Since the subject "She and Dad" is plural and 'would' is never followed by 'has' or 'to', only have loved fits. The corrected sentence is "She and Dad would have loved Amit." "has loved" violates 'would + base form', "to loved" is ungrammatical, and the original "has had loved" is incorrect — so an improvement is needed.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 93archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The big stone monument was the only __________ the lost traveller remembered.

  1. A
    specimen
  2. B
    souvenir
  3. C
    piece
  4. D
    landmark
Show answer
D. landmark

A landmark is a prominent, easily recognised feature used for orientation — exactly what a lost traveller would remember about a big stone monument. 'Specimen' (a sample for study), 'souvenir' (a memento kept by a traveller, not the monument itself), and 'piece' (too generic and lacks the navigational sense) do not fit. The correct word is landmark.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 94archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. The state or quality of being holy

  1. A
    Avarice
  2. B
    Baseness
  3. C
    Sanctity
  4. D
    Parsimony
Show answer
C. Sanctity

Sanctity is derived from Latin sanctus (holy) and denotes the state or quality of being holy or sacred — a direct synonym of the given phrase. 'Avarice' (greed for wealth), 'Baseness' (lack of moral principles — the opposite), and 'Parsimony' (extreme stinginess) bear no link to holiness. The best substitute is Sanctity.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 95archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    hypnotyst
  2. B
    hipnotyst
  3. C
    hipnotist
  4. D
    hypnotist
Show answer
D. hypnotist

The word comes from Greek hypnos (sleep) plus the agent suffix -ist, giving hypnotist. 'hipnotyst' and 'hipnotist' wrongly use 'hip-' instead of 'hyp-'. 'hypnotyst' wrongly uses '-yst' instead of the standard '-ist'. The correctly spelt word is hypnotist.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 96archived

Queen Victoria had all of the following traits, except ______________.

  1. A
    proud
  2. B
    generous
  3. C
    stern
  4. D
    pronounced features
Show answer
B. generous

The passage says the statue depicts "a rather proud, stern person with pronounced features." These three traits are explicitly attributed to Queen Victoria. The word generous is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Hence the trait she did NOT have (per the passage) is generous.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 97archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The airline was unable to give us a reason for the ______________ departure delay.

  1. A
    indivisible
  2. B
    invincible
  3. C
    invisible
  4. D
    inexplicable
Show answer
D. inexplicable

The blank needs an adjective meaning "unable to be explained", matching the airline's inability to give a reason. Inexplicable (in- + explicable) precisely means "cannot be explained" and fits the context. 'Indivisible' (cannot be divided), 'invincible' (cannot be defeated), and 'invisible' (cannot be seen) do not relate to the absence of a reason. The correct word is inexplicable.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 98archived

How many people unveiled the Queen Victoria statue at Cubbon Park?

  1. A
    One
  2. B
    Six
  3. C
    Four
  4. D
    Two
Show answer
A. One

The passage states: "In 1906, the statue was unveiled in the city by George Frederick Ernest Albert, Prince of Wales and Duke of Cornwall and York." Although several titles are listed, they all refer to a single individual (the future King George V). Therefore only one person unveiled the statue.

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 99archived

Which of the following is false regarding the Queen Victoria statue in Bengaluru?

  1. A
    It is made of marble
  2. B
    It is 11 feet tall
  3. C
    It is 111 years old
  4. D
    It is standing in Queen Victoria park
Show answer
D. It is standing in Queen Victoria park

The passage links the statue to Cubbon Park, not to any "Queen Victoria park." It also confirms the statue is made of marble, is 11 feet high, and stands in its 111th year (unveiled 1906). Hence the false statement is "It is standing in Queen Victoria park."

Paper & answer key PDF
Question 100archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. At this moment that (1)/ terrible door burst noisily open and (2)/ banged for the wall. (3)/No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
C. 3

The error lies in part (3): "banged for the wall". The verb "banged" denotes a forceful impact, and the correct preposition to indicate the surface struck is "against" (or sometimes "on"). "For" expresses purpose or duration, not the object of impact. The corrected phrase reads: "banged against the wall." Hence the answer is option (3).

Paper & answer key PDF