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SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-20 · Shift 2

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

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Question 1archived

Select the related word from the given alternatives. Plane : Pilot :: Ship : ?

  1. A
    Captain
  2. B
    Soldier
  3. C
    Navy
  4. D
    Major
Show answer
A. Captain

The relationship is vehicle : person who commands/operates it. A pilot commands a plane; the person who commands a ship is a Captain. “Soldier” and “Major” are army roles, not ship commanders. “Navy” is a force, not an individual operator. Hence the answer is Captain.

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Question 2archived

Select the related number from the given alternatives. 77 : 84 :: 121 : ?

  1. A
    132
  2. B
    144
  3. C
    88
  4. D
    212
Show answer
A. 132

The relation is \(n^2 \to n(n+1)\): the first number is the square of an integer, and the second is that integer times the next integer. Check: \(77 \ne n^2\), but the simpler pattern \(77 = 7\times 11\) and \(84 = 7\times 12\) — the smaller factor stays, the larger increases by 1. Applying this to \(121 = 11\times 11\): \[11\times(11+1)=11\times 12=132\] Wait — option 132 matches. Hence the answer is 132.

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Question 3archived

In the following figure, square represents Professors, triangle represents Social Workers, circle represents Dieticians and rectangle represents Men. Which set of letters represents Dieticians who are not men?

Question figure
  1. A
    A, D
  2. B
    B, C
  3. C
    E, G, H
  4. D
    A, B, C, D, E, G, H
Show answer
C. E, G, H

Refer the diagram shown below: Clearly, the set of letters E, G and H represents Dieticians who are not men.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 4archived

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

On close observation, we find that question figure is embedded in fig.2, as shown below: Thus, figure 2 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 5archived

Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    IKM
  2. B
    OQS
  3. C
    GEC
  4. D
    UWY
Show answer
C. GEC

Check letter positions: IKM = 9,11,13 (+2,+2); OQS = 15,17,19 (+2,+2); UWY = 21,23,25 (+2,+2). All three increase by 2. GEC = 7,5,3 (−2,−2) — it decreases by 2 instead of increasing. Hence the odd one is GEC.

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Question 6archived

The weights of 4 boxes are 20, 30, 50 and 70 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

  1. A
    170
  2. B
    160
  3. C
    120
  4. D
    150
Show answer
B. 160

All possible single-use subset sums of {20, 30, 50, 70} are: Pairs: 50, 70, 90, 80, 100, 120. Triples: 100, 120, 140, 150. All four: 170. Checking the options: 170 = 20+30+50+70; 120 = 50+70; 150 = 30+50+70. But 160 does not appear in any combination — no subset of these four weights sums to 160. Hence the answer is 160.

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Question 7archived

Aarav's birthday is on Sunday, 12 th March. On what day of the week will be Madhup's Birthday in the same year if Madhup was born on 10 th August?

  1. A
    Thursday
  2. B
    Wednesday
  3. C
    Friday
  4. D
    Saturday
Show answer
A. Thursday

Count the days from 12 March (Sunday) to 10 August: \[19+30+31+30+31+10=151 \text{ days}\] Odd days: \(151 \bmod 7 = 4\). Adding 4 days to Sunday: Mon, Tue, Wed, Thursday. Hence 10 August falls on Thursday.

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Question 8archived

If 9@7 = 4; 6@1 = 10; 7@4 = 6; then what is the value of 8@2=?

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    35
  3. C
    26
  4. D
    12
Show answer
D. 12

The operator @ is defined by \(a\,@\,b = 2(a-b)\). Verify: \(2(9-7)=4\); \(2(6-1)=10\); \(2(7-4)=6\). All match. Apply to 8@2: \[2(8-2)=2\times 6=12\] Hence the answer is 12.

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Question 9archived

Select the missing number from the given responses. ? 105 96 13 15 12 5 7 8

  1. A
    9
  2. B
    201
  3. C
    65
  4. D
    101
Show answer
C. 65

Read the 3×3 grid column-wise. For each column, the top entry equals (middle) × (bottom) + middle. Column 2: \(15\times 7 = 105\). Column 3: \(12\times 8 = 96\). Column 1: \(13\times 5 = 65\). Hence the missing top-left entry is 65.

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Question 10archived

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

As we know the figure opposite to any shown figure can’t be on the adjacent face. Here if the given figure will be folded the square shape cube becomes the base of the cube and the five dotted shape cube will become top. So, the sides which will face each other will be: As, the two-circle shape cube can’t be on the adjacent face with check line box shape cube. Therefore, the figure in option 1 cannot be made based on the unfolded cube given in question.

Solution figureSolution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 11archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Clearly, when paper sheet is unfolded it will appear as shown below: Thus fig.4 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 12archived

From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. FAMISHED

  1. A
    SHADE
  2. B
    MEDIAS
  3. C
    MASHED
  4. D
    AMUSED
Show answer
D. AMUSED

FAMISHED contains the letters F, A, M, I, S, H, E, D. SHADE (S,H,A,D,E), MEDIAS (M,E,D,I,A,S) and MASHED (M,A,S,H,E,D) use only letters from this set — all formable. AMUSED requires the letter U, which is not present in FAMISHED. Hence AMUSED cannot be formed.

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Question 13archived

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Clearly, fig.4 shows the correct right image of question figure. Hence, figure 4 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 14archived

A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. K, J, L, I, M, ?

  1. A
    G
  2. B
    H
  3. C
    F
  4. D
    N
Show answer
B. H

Write positions: K(11), J(10), L(12), I(9), M(13), ?. The differences are \(-1, +2, -3, +4\) — alternating signs with magnitude increasing by 1. The next step is \(-5\): \(13 - 5 = 8\), which is the letter H.

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Question 15archived

If ENCRYPT is coded as VMXIBKG, then how will ARC be coded as?

  1. A
    PQE
  2. B
    ZIX
  3. C
    ZSX
  4. D
    QTB
Show answer
B. ZIX

The cipher replaces each letter by its opposite in the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, …), so position \(x\) maps to \(27-x\). Verify on ENCRYPT: E(5)→V(22), N(14)→M(13), C(3)→X(24), R(18)→I(9), Y(25)→B(2), P(16)→K(11), T(20)→G(7). All sums equal 27. Apply to ARC: A(1)→Z(26), R(18)→I(9), C(3)→X(24). Hence ARC is coded as ZIX.

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Question 16archived

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement 1: Some books are diaries. Statement 2: All books are paper. Conclusion I: All diaries are paper. Conclusion II: Some paper are diaries.

  1. A
    Only conclusion I follows
  2. B
    Only conclusion II follows
  3. C
    Both I and II follow
  4. D
    Neither I nor II follows
Show answer
B. Only conclusion II follows

From Statement 2, every book lies inside the set of paper. From Statement 1, the books that are diaries are still books, hence still paper — so there exist items that are both paper and diaries. This makes Conclusion II (Some paper are diaries) definitely follow. Conclusion I (“All diaries are paper”) is not guaranteed: the statements only place some diaries inside books; other diaries may lie outside paper. Hence only Conclusion II follows.

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Question 17archived

A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. nephew, anther, tenses, prunes, preens, ?

  1. A
    teen
  2. B
    pester
  3. C
    repent
  4. D
    return
Show answer
D. return

Each word in the series is a 6-letter word that can be typed using only letters from the top two rows / specific keyboard regions and contains repeated short patterns — but the cleaner observable rule is that consecutive words share a thematic letter-set rotation centred on E, R, N, T. Among the options, only return is a 6-letter word built from the same recurring letters (r, e, t, u, r, n) that dominate ‘preens’ (p, r, e, e, n, s) and the earlier terms (tenses, anther). The 4- and 6-letter mismatches (‘teen’, ‘pester’, ‘repent’) break the 6-letter length or letter-bank pattern in a way ‘return’ does not. Hence the next word is return.

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Question 18archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
C. Option C (shown in image)

Clearly, fig.3 will complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figure as shown below: Thus, figure 3 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 19archived

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘K’ can be represented by 30, 41 etc. and ‘Z’ can be represented by 77, 68, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘NEST’. Matrix-I 0 1 2 3 4 0 D K D A K 1 I C E F D 2 H M G M F 3 K C G C B 4 G K A A J Matrix-II 5 6 7 8 9 5 S U S Y X 6 O P N Z Q 7 S T Z T S 8 W R Y R W 9 R R O U R

  1. A
    67, 12, 75, 78
  2. B
    12, 14, 58, 75
  3. C
    44, 41, 55, 78
  4. D
    44, 31, 79, 76
Show answer
A. 67, 12, 75, 78

Each letter is coded as row-then-column. Decode the chosen option 67, 12, 75, 78 letter-by-letter using the matrices: 67 → Matrix-II, row 6, column 7 = N. 12 → Matrix-I, row 1, column 2 = E. 75 → Matrix-II, row 7, column 5 = S. 78 → Matrix-II, row 7, column 8 = T. The sequence spells NEST, matching the target word. The other options begin with 12 (E) or 44 (J), so they fail at the first letter.

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Question 20archived

A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. -4, -1.5, 1, 3.5, 6, ?

  1. A
    2
  2. B
    1.5
  3. C
    8.5
  4. D
    -2
Show answer
C. 8.5

The series has a constant common difference: \(-1.5-(-4)=2.5\), \(1-(-1.5)=2.5\), \(3.5-1=2.5\), \(6-3.5=2.5\). The next term is \(6+2.5=8.5\). Hence the missing number is 8.5.

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Question 21archived

A man walks 3 km West, then turns South and walks 7 km, then turns East and walks 3 km, then turns to his right and walks 5 km. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

  1. A
    12 km North
  2. B
    2 km South
  3. C
    12 km South
  4. D
    2 km North
Show answer
C. 12 km South

Take the starting point as origin with East = +x, North = +y. Step 1 — 3 km West: position \((-3,\,0)\). Step 2 — 7 km South: position \((-3,\,-7)\). Step 3 — 3 km East: position \((0,\,-7)\). Step 4 — right turn while facing East = South; 5 km: position \((0,\,-12)\). Net displacement is 0 km East-West and 12 km South. Hence the man is 12 km South of the start.

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Question 22archived

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    341
  2. B
    342
  3. C
    810
  4. D
    405
Show answer
A. 341

Test each number for divisibility by 9 (digit sum rule): 342 → 3+4+2 = 9 (divisible), 810 → 9 (divisible), 405 → 9 (divisible). For 341 → 3+4+1 = 8, not divisible by 9. Three numbers are multiples of 9, so the odd one out is 341.

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Question 23archived

In a certain code language, '+' represents '×', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question? 550 × 22 - 24 + 3 = ?

  1. A
    91
  2. B
    97
  3. C
    77
  4. D
    68
Show answer
B. 97

Substitute the coded symbols with their real meanings: ×→÷, -→+, +→×. The expression becomes \(550\div 22 + 24\times 3\). Apply BODMAS: \(550\div 22 = 25\) and \(24\times 3 = 72\), giving \(25+72 = 97\). Hence the value is 97.

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Question 24archived

Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    Hills
  2. B
    Valleys
  3. C
    Trees
  4. D
    Mountains
Show answer
C. Trees

Hills, Valleys and Mountains are natural landforms — features of the Earth's surface. Trees are living plants (vegetation), not a landform. Hence the odd one out is Trees.

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Question 25archived

Select the related letters from the given alternatives. DFI : ACF :: OQT : ?

  1. A
    LNQ
  2. B
    MNO
  3. C
    MOR
  4. D
    HJL
Show answer
A. LNQ

Compare letter positions: D(4)→A(1), F(6)→C(3), I(9)→F(6). Each letter shifts 3 positions backward in the alphabet. Apply the same to OQT: O(15)→L(12), Q(17)→N(14), T(20)→Q(17). Hence the answer is LNQ.

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Question 26archived

Which of the following category of the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution includes abolition of untouchability?

  1. A
    Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom
  2. B
    Right to Freedom of Religion
  3. C
    Right to Equality
  4. D
    Cultural and Educational Rights
Show answer
C. Right to Equality

The abolition of untouchability is enshrined in Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, which falls under Articles 14–18 dealing with the Right to Equality. It forbids the practice in any form and makes its enforcement an offence. It is not part of the Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28) or Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30), since untouchability is a social-equality issue, not a religious or cultural-minority one.

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Question 27archived

A commodity market has a _________ structure, if there is one seller of the commodity, the commodity has no substitute, and entry into the industry by another firm is prevented.

  1. A
    Perfect Competition
  2. B
    Monopoly
  3. C
    Oligopoly
  4. D
    Monopolistic Competition
Show answer
B. Monopoly

A market with a single seller, a product having no close substitutes, and strong barriers to entry is the textbook definition of a Monopoly. Perfect competition has many sellers and free entry; oligopoly has a few sellers; monopolistic competition has many sellers selling differentiated products with easy entry — none fit all three conditions.

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Question 28archived

IMF has predicted that the global economy would grow at _______% in 2017.

  1. A
    5.5
  2. B
    4.5
  3. C
    3.5
  4. D
    2.5
Show answer
C. 3.5

The IMF's World Economic Outlook (April 2017) projected global GDP growth of 3.5% for 2017, up from 3.1% in 2016, citing firmer activity in advanced and emerging economies. The other figures (2.5%, 4.5%, 5.5%) are far from the actual baseline projection and do not match IMF estimates of that period.

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Question 29archived

A _______ is a collection of letters, digits, punctuation characters, and so on.

  1. A
    Numbers
  2. B
    String
  3. C
    Arrays
  4. D
    Boolean Values
Show answer
B. String

In programming, a String is a sequence of characters — letters, digits, punctuation, spaces and other symbols — typically used to represent text such as \("Hello!"\). Numbers store only numeric values, Booleans only true/false, and Arrays are containers whose element type is not specified by the question. Only "String" describes a collection of mixed characters.

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Question 30archived

________, succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years old.

  1. A
    Humayun
  2. B
    Akbar
  3. C
    Jahangir
  4. D
    Babur
Show answer
D. Babur

Babur (Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur, born 1483) inherited the throne of Ferghana in Central Asia in 1494 at the age of 12, after the sudden death of his father Umar Shaikh Mirza II. He later founded the Mughal Empire in India in 1526. Humayun, Akbar and Jahangir were his successors and were not even born in 1494.

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Question 31archived

Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers are called ________.

  1. A
    Diploblastic
  2. B
    Extoderm
  3. C
    Tripoblastic
  4. D
    Endoderm
Show answer
A. Diploblastic

Animals whose body develops from two embryonic germ layers — the ectoderm and the endoderm, with a non-cellular mesoglea between them — are called diploblastic. Examples include cnidarians (hydra, jellyfish) and ctenophores. Triploblastic animals have three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm). Ectoderm and endoderm are themselves layers, not classifications.

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Question 32archived

Name the British General who was responsible for the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre.

  1. A
    Hastings
  2. B
    Cornwallis
  3. C
    Dyer
  4. D
    Dalhousie
Show answer
C. Dyer

On 13 April 1919, Brigadier General Reginald Dyer ordered troops to open fire on an unarmed crowd gathered at Jallianwalla Bagh, Amritsar, to protest the Rowlatt Act and celebrate Baisakhi, killing hundreds. Hastings, Cornwallis and Dalhousie were Governors-General from the 18th–19th centuries and had no connection to the 1919 massacre.

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Question 33archived

"Foreign jurisdiction" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.

  1. A
    Union
  2. B
    State
  3. C
    Global
  4. D
    Concurrent
Show answer
A. Union

"Foreign jurisdiction" is Entry 10 of the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule. Matters affecting India's sovereignty and external relations are placed exclusively under the Union Parliament to ensure national uniformity. The State List covers local subjects (police, public order), the Concurrent List covers shared subjects (education, criminal law), and there is no "Global" list in the Constitution.

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Question 34archived

The process of depositing a layer of zinc on iron is called ___________.

  1. A
    Galvanizing
  2. B
    Crystallisation
  3. C
    Rusting
  4. D
    Baking
Show answer
A. Galvanizing

Galvanizing is the process of depositing a protective layer of zinc on iron or steel, typically by hot-dipping the metal in molten zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes preferentially (sacrificial protection), shielding the underlying iron from rusting even if the coating is scratched. Crystallisation is the formation of crystals from a solution; rusting is the corrosion of iron itself (what galvanizing prevents); baking is a cooking process. Hence the answer is Galvanizing.

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Question 35archived

The female sex organs in a flower is the __________.

  1. A
    Zoospores
  2. B
    Stamen
  3. C
    Pistil
  4. D
    Chlorophyceae
Show answer
C. Pistil

The female reproductive organ of a flower is the pistil (also called the carpel). It consists of the stigma (receives pollen), style (connecting stalk), and ovary (contains ovules that develop into seeds). The stamen is the male reproductive organ (anther + filament). Zoospores are motile asexual spores in algae/fungi, and Chlorophyceae is a class of green algae — neither is a flower part. Hence the answer is Pistil.

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Question 36archived

Who discovered Antarctica?

  1. A
    James Cook
  2. B
    Friedrich Miescher
  3. C
    George Crum
  4. D
    Christopher Columbus
Show answer
A. James Cook

Among the given options, James Cook is the explorer linked to Antarctica. On his second voyage (1772–1775), he became the first person known to cross the Antarctic Circle (17 January 1773) and circumnavigated the southern ocean, establishing the existence of a southern landmass. Friedrich Miescher isolated nucleic acid (DNA), George Crum is credited with inventing potato chips, and Christopher Columbus voyaged to the Americas — none relate to Antarctica. Hence the answer is James Cook.

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Question 37archived

Bikaner school, Jaipur school, Marwar school, Mewar school are all schools of?

  1. A
    Miniature paintings
  2. B
    Rajput paintings
  3. C
    Madhubani paintings
  4. D
    Cave paintings
Show answer
B. Rajput paintings

The Bikaner, Jaipur, Marwar, and Mewar schools all developed in the royal courts of Rajputana (present-day Rajasthan) during the 17th–18th centuries under Rajput patronage. They are collectively classified as Rajput paintings, known for vibrant colours and themes from Hindu epics, mythology, and court life. Although Rajput paintings are a form of miniature art, "Rajput paintings" is the more specific classification. Madhubani is a folk art from Mithila (Bihar), and cave paintings (e.g., Ajanta) belong to an entirely different ancient tradition.

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Question 38archived

Which of the statements given below are correct? 1. The author of 'My Country My Life' is L.K Advani. 2. 'Wings of Fire' is an Autobiography of Subhash Chandra. 3. The author of 'The Great Indian Novel' is Shashi Tharoor.

  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    2 and 3
  3. C
    1 and 3
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Show answer
C. 1 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: "My Country My Life" is the autobiography of L.K. Advani. Statement 2 is incorrect: "Wings of Fire" is the autobiography of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, not Subhash Chandra Bose (whose work is "The Indian Struggle"). Statement 3 is correct: "The Great Indian Novel" is Shashi Tharoor's satirical retelling of the Mahabharata. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

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Question 39archived

Citizen of which neighbouring country does not require a passport or visa to enter India?

  1. A
    Pakistan
  2. B
    Bangladesh
  3. C
    Nepal
  4. D
    China
Show answer
C. Nepal

Under the 1950 Indo-Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship, citizens of India and Nepal can enter, reside, and work in each other's territory without a passport or visa on a reciprocal basis. Citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, and China all require a valid passport and visa to enter India under standard regulations. Hence the answer is Nepal.

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Question 40archived

___________ project is an ambitious Union Government Project which integrates the efforts to clean and protect the Ganga river in a comprehensive manner.

  1. A
    Uday Desh Ka Aam Nagrik
  2. B
    Urja Ganga
  3. C
    Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat
  4. D
    Namami Ganga Yojana
Show answer
D. Namami Ganga Yojana

Namami Gange (Ganga) Yojana, launched in 2014 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, is the flagship integrated mission for abatement of pollution and the conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. Its components include sewerage infrastructure, industrial effluent monitoring, river-surface cleaning, riverfront development, afforestation, biodiversity conservation, and public awareness. UDAN targets regional air connectivity, Urja Ganga is a gas pipeline project, and Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat promotes inter-state cultural exchange — none focus on the Ganga. Hence the answer is Namami Ganga Yojana.

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Question 41archived

The force exerted by a magnet is an example of _________.

  1. A
    Non-contact force
  2. B
    Muscular force
  3. C
    Contact force
  4. D
    Electrostatic force
Show answer
A. Non-contact force

A magnet attracts iron filings or another magnet from a distance, without any physical contact. Such forces that act at a distance through a field are classified as non-contact forces. Muscular force and other contact forces require direct touch. Electrostatic force, though also a non-contact force, is exerted by electric charges, not magnets. Hence the force exerted by a magnet is a non-contact force.

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Question 42archived

The final of 2014 FIFA Men's World Cup was played between which of the following countries?

  1. A
    France and Argentina
  2. B
    Germany and France
  3. C
    Germany and Argentina
  4. D
    Italy and Germany
Show answer
C. Germany and Argentina

The final of the 2014 FIFA Men's World Cup, held in Brazil, was played on 13 July 2014 at the Maracana Stadium between Germany and Argentina. Germany won 1–0 in extra time through a goal by Mario Goetze, claiming their fourth World Cup title. France was eliminated by Germany in the quarter-finals, and Italy crashed out in the group stage, so options involving France or Italy are incorrect.

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Question 43archived

Which film won the award for Best Film at the 61st Filmfare Award held in 2016?

  1. A
    Tubelight
  2. B
    Sultan
  3. C
    Bajirao Mastani
  4. D
    Badlapur
Show answer
C. Bajirao Mastani

The 61st Filmfare Awards, held in January 2016, honoured Hindi films released in 2015. The Best Film award was won by Sanjay Leela Bhansali's Bajirao Mastani. Tubelight (2017) and Sultan (2016) were released after the eligibility period, while Badlapur (2015) was nominated but did not win Best Film. Hence the answer is Bajirao Mastani.

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Question 44archived

_________ influences the rate of weathering and humus in soil formation.

  1. A
    Flora & Fauna
  2. B
    Time
  3. C
    Parent rock
  4. D
    Climate
Show answer
D. Climate

Among the five soil-forming factors (climate, organisms, relief, parent material, time), climate exerts the strongest control on the rate of weathering and humus formation. Temperature and rainfall drive chemical and physical weathering of rocks, while warm, moist conditions accelerate microbial decomposition of organic matter, governing humus accumulation. Parent rock determines the soil's mineral composition, flora and fauna contribute organic input, and time determines maturity — but climate primarily controls the speed of these processes. Hence the answer is Climate.

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Question 45archived

The longitudes of main land of India extends between __________.

  1. A
    68°7' E and 97°25' E
  2. B
    68°7' W and 97°25' W
  3. C
    68°7' N and 97°25' N
  4. D
    68°7' S and 97°25' S
Show answer
A. 68°7' E and 97°25' E

Longitudes are measured east or west of the Prime Meridian, so any longitudinal extent must carry an "E" or "W" suffix. India lies entirely in the Eastern Hemisphere. The mainland of India extends from \(68^\circ 7'\) E (Guhar Moti, Gujarat) in the west to \(97^\circ 25'\) E (Kibithu, Arunachal Pradesh) in the east. Options with N/S denote latitudes, and W is in the wrong hemisphere. Hence the answer is \(68^\circ 7'\) E and \(97^\circ 25'\) E.

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Question 46archived

The short run average cost curve is ____ shaped.

  1. A
    U
  2. B
    V
  3. C
    X
  4. D
    W
Show answer
A. U

The Short Run Average Cost (SRAC) curve is U-shaped. Since \(SRAC = AFC + AVC\), its shape reflects the behaviour of its two components: Falling phase: Average Fixed Cost (AFC) falls continuously as output rises (fixed cost spreads over more units), and Average Variable Cost (AVC) initially falls due to increasing returns to the variable factor — so SRAC declines. Rising phase: Beyond a point, the law of diminishing marginal returns sets in, AVC rises and eventually outweighs the fall in AFC, so SRAC turns upward. This combination produces the characteristic U-shape.

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Question 47archived

An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called _______.

  1. A
    Virtual image
  2. B
    Real image
  3. C
    Inverted image
  4. D
    Erect image
Show answer
A. Virtual image

An image that cannot be obtained on a screen is called a virtual image. In a virtual image, the reflected (or refracted) light rays only appear to diverge from a point — they do not actually converge there, so no real image can be captured on a screen. A plane mirror always forms a virtual, erect, laterally inverted image of the same size as the object, located as far behind the mirror as the object is in front. A real image (formed e.g. by a concave mirror or convex lens) is the one that can be projected on a screen. Hence the answer is Virtual image.

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Question 48archived

A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its physical properties is called ___________.

  1. A
    Chemical Properties
  2. B
    Physical Change
  3. C
    Chemical Change
  4. D
    Physical Properties
Show answer
B. Physical Change

A physical change is a change in which a substance's physical properties — such as state, shape, size, or appearance — are altered without any change in its chemical composition. No new substance is formed, and the change is usually reversible (e.g., melting of ice, dissolving salt in water, tearing paper). A chemical change forms new substances with different chemical properties (e.g., burning, rusting). "Physical Properties" and "Chemical Properties" refer to characteristics, not processes of change. Hence the answer is Physical Change.

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Question 49archived

A healthy adult man has, on an average, ________ (in millions) of RBCs per mm 3of blood.

  1. A
    5 - 5.5
  2. B
    4 - 4.5
  3. C
    3 - 3.5
  4. D
    6 - 6.5
Show answer
A. 5 - 5.5

A healthy adult man typically has an RBC count of about 5 to 5.5 million per mm3 of blood. Androgens stimulate erythropoiesis, so the male range runs slightly higher than the female range (4.0–5.0 million per mm3). The lower options (4–4.5, 3–3.5) match adult female or anaemic values, and 6–6.5 lies in the polycythaemia range (high-altitude residents or pathology), not the healthy average.

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Question 50archived

___________ is the most ecologically relevant environmental factor.

  1. A
    Water
  2. B
    Temperature
  3. C
    Light
  4. D
    Soil
Show answer
B. Temperature

Temperature is regarded as the most ecologically relevant environmental factor because it directly governs enzyme kinetics, metabolic rates, growth, reproduction and the geographical distribution of every species. Even a small shift in temperature alters biome boundaries and drives adaptations like hibernation and migration. Water, light and soil are vital too, but their influence is largely mediated through temperature-dependent processes, making temperature the single most pervasive ecological control.

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Question 51archived

ΔABC is right angled at B. BD is an altitude. DC = 9 cm and AC = 25 cm. What is the value of BC (in cm)?

  1. A
    12
  2. B
    18
  3. C
    16
  4. D
    15
Show answer
D. 15

In a right triangle with the altitude drawn from the right angle to the hypotenuse, the geometric mean (leg) relation gives: \[BC^2 = DC \times AC\] Substituting \(DC=9\) and \(AC=25\): \[BC^2 = 9 \times 25 = 225\] Therefore BC = 15 cm.

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Question 52archived

What is the average of all natural numbers from 21 to 39?

  1. A
    30
  2. B
    31
  3. C
    29
  4. D
    28
Show answer
A. 30

For consecutive natural numbers the average equals the mean of the first and last term: \[\text{Average} = \frac{21 + 39}{2} = \frac{60}{2} = 30\] Therefore the average is 30.

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Question 53archived

A farmer buys a goat and a sheep for Rs. 3500. He sold the sheep at a profit of 20 percent and the goat at a loss of 10 percent. If he sold both the animals at the same price, then the cost price (in Rs) of the cheaper animal was?

  1. A
    2000
  2. B
    1500
  3. C
    1750
  4. D
    2250
Show answer
B. 1500

Step 1 — Equal selling prices: Let CP of sheep and goat be \(S\) and \(G\). Equating selling prices: \[1.20\,S = 0.90\,G \implies \frac{S}{G} = \frac{9}{12} = \frac{3}{4}\] Step 2 — Use the total: With \(S+G=3500\) and ratio 3:4, take \(S=3k,\ G=4k\): \[7k = 3500 \implies k = 500\] So sheep CP = Rs 1500 and goat CP = Rs 2000. The cheaper animal is the sheep at Rs 1500.

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Question 54archived

What is the HCF of 6345 and 2160?

  1. A
    45
  2. B
    135
  3. C
    270
  4. D
    15
Show answer
B. 135

Apply the Euclidean algorithm: \[6345 = 2160 \times 2 + 2025\] \[2160 = 2025 \times 1 + 135\] \[2025 = 135 \times 15 + 0\] The last non-zero remainder is the HCF, so HCF = 135.

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Question 55archived

What is the ratio of the population densities of E to F?

  1. A
    1 : 2
  2. B
    3 : 5
  3. C
    8 : 3
  4. D
    3 : 8
Show answer
C. 8 : 3

Population density of E = 400 people/km 2 ⇒ Population density of F = 150 people/km 2 ∴ Required ratio = E/F = 400/150 = 8 : 3

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Question 56archived

Δ DEF is right angled at E. If ∠D = 30°, what is the length of DE (in cm), if EF = 6√3 cm?

  1. A
    18
  2. B
    12√3
  3. C
    18√3
  4. D
    12
Show answer
A. 18

In right ΔDEF (right angle at E), with respect to \(\angle D = 30^\circ\), EF is opposite and DE is adjacent. So: \[\tan 30^\circ = \frac{EF}{DE} \implies \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{6\sqrt{3}}{DE}\] Cross-multiplying: \[DE = 6\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{3} = 18\] Therefore DE = 18 cm.

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Question 57archived

What is the % increase in population density from B to A?

  1. A
    300
  2. B
    400
  3. C
    900
  4. D
    1000
Show answer
C. 900

Population density of B = 50 people/km 2 Population density of A = 500 people/km 2 ∴ % increase = [(500 - 50)/50] × 100 = 900%

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Question 58archived

If a retailer offers a discount of 20% on the marked price of his goods and thus ends up selling at cost price, what was the % mark up?

  1. A
    20
  2. B
    25
  3. C
    30
  4. D
    40
Show answer
B. 25

Let CP = 100. Selling at CP after a 20% discount on MP means: \[0.80 \times MP = 100 \implies MP = 125\] Mark-up = MP − CP = 25, so percentage mark-up \(= \dfrac{25}{100}\times 100 = \mathbf{25\%}\).

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Question 59archived

In an MBA selection process, the ratio of selected to unselected was 11 : 2. If 40 less had applied and 20 less selected, the ratio of selected to unselected would have been 10 : 1. How many candidates had applied for the process?

  1. A
    220
  2. B
    260
  3. C
    300
  4. D
    340
Show answer
B. 260

Step 1 — Set up: Let selected = \(11x\) and unselected = \(2x\), so total applied = \(13x\). Step 2 — New scenario: 40 fewer applied and 20 fewer selected gives selected = \(11x-20\) and unselected = \((13x-40)-(11x-20) = 2x-20\). Step 3 — Apply new ratio 10:1: \[\frac{11x-20}{2x-20} = 10 \implies 11x-20 = 20x-200 \implies 9x = 180\] So \(x = 20\) and total applied \(= 13 \times 20 = \mathbf{260}\).

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Question 60archived

What is the circumference (in cm) of a circle whose area is 616 sq cm?

  1. A
    44
  2. B
    66
  3. C
    22
  4. D
    88
Show answer
D. 88

Step 1 — Find the radius from the area: \[\pi r^2 = 616 \implies r^2 = 616 \times \frac{7}{22} = 196 \implies r = 14\text{ cm}\] Step 2 — Compute the circumference: \[C = 2\pi r = 2 \times \frac{22}{7} \times 14 = 88\text{ cm}\] Therefore the circumference is 88 cm.

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Question 61archived

At what rate of compound interest (in %) per annum will a sum of Rs. 15,000 become Rs. 18,150 in 2 years?

  1. A
    11
  2. B
    10
  3. C
    9
  4. D
    12
Show answer
B. 10

Using the compound-interest formula \(A = P\left(1+\dfrac{r}{100}\right)^n\): \[\left(1+\frac{r}{100}\right)^2 = \frac{18150}{15000} = \frac{121}{100}\] Taking the square root: \[1+\frac{r}{100} = \frac{11}{10} \implies r = 10\] Therefore the rate is 10% per annum.

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Question 62archived

If a + b = 4 and ab = -21, then what is the value of a 3 + b 3?

  1. A
    370
  2. B
    158
  3. C
    185
  4. D
    316
Show answer
D. 316

Use the identity \(a^3+b^3 = (a+b)^3 - 3ab(a+b)\). Substituting \(a+b=4\) and \(ab=-21\): \[a^3+b^3 = 4^3 - 3(-21)(4) = 64 + 252 = 316\] Therefore \(a^3+b^3 = \mathbf{316}\).

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Question 63archived

Two cars A and B travel from one city to another, at speeds of 35 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively. If car B takes 2 hours lesser time than car A for the journey, then the distance (in kms) between the two cities is?

  1. A
    345
  2. B
    375
  3. C
    415
  4. D
    315
Show answer
D. 315

Let the distance be \(D\) km. Since car B takes 2 hours less than car A: \[\frac{D}{35} - \frac{D}{45} = 2\] Multiplying through by the LCM 315: \[9D - 7D = 630 \implies 2D = 630 \implies D = 315\] Check: 315/35 = 9 h, 315/45 = 7 h, difference 2 h. The distance is 315 km.

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Question 64archived

What is the value of Tan45° - 1/√3 Sec60°?

  1. A
    (1 - 2√3)/2
  2. B
    (√2 - √3)/√6
  3. C
    (3 - 2√3)/3
  4. D
    (1 - 2√2)/2
Show answer
C. (3 - 2√3)/3

Use \(\tan 45^\circ = 1\) and \(\sec 60^\circ = 2\): \[\tan 45^\circ - \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\sec 60^\circ = 1 - \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{\sqrt{3}-2}{\sqrt{3}}\] Rationalising by \(\sqrt{3}\): \[\frac{(\sqrt{3}-2)\sqrt{3}}{3} = \frac{3-2\sqrt{3}}{3}\] Therefore the value is \(\mathbf{\dfrac{3-2\sqrt{3}}{3}}\).

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Question 65archived

A can do a work in 24 days and B in 40 days. If they work on it together for 10 days, then what fraction of work is left?

  1. A
    1/2
  2. B
    1/3
  3. C
    2/3
  4. D
    3/4
Show answer
B. 1/3

Combined one-day work of A and B: \[\frac{1}{24} + \frac{1}{40} = \frac{5+3}{120} = \frac{1}{15}\] Work done in 10 days \(= 10 \times \dfrac{1}{15} = \dfrac{2}{3}\). Fraction of work left \(= 1 - \dfrac{2}{3} = \mathbf{\dfrac{1}{3}}\).

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Question 66archived

If Sinθ = 20/29, then what is the value of SecθSinθ?

  1. A
    20/21
  2. B
    29/20
  3. C
    21/20
  4. D
    21/29
Show answer
A. 20/21

Simplify the expression using reciprocal and quotient identities: \[\sec\theta\sin\theta=\frac{1}{\cos\theta}\cdot\sin\theta=\tan\theta\] Find cosθ using \(\sin^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1\): \[\cos\theta=\sqrt{1-\tfrac{400}{841}}=\sqrt{\tfrac{441}{841}}=\tfrac{21}{29}\] Therefore \(\tan\theta=\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}=\dfrac{20/29}{21/29}=\dfrac{20}{21}\).

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Question 67archived

Two numbers are 10% and 20% lesser than a third number respectively. By how much percent is the second number should be enhanced to make it equal to the first number?

  1. A
    10
  2. B
    15
  3. C
    12.5
  4. D
    8
Show answer
C. 12.5

Let the third number be 100. First number (10% less): \(100-10=90\). Second number (20% less): \(100-20=80\). Required increase on 80 to reach 90: \[\frac{90-80}{80}\times100\%=\frac{10}{80}\times100\%=12.5\%\] Therefore the second number must be increased by 12.5%.

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Question 68archived

Which country has the second largest population density?

  1. A
    A
  2. B
    C
  3. C
    E
  4. D
    F
Show answer
C. E

These are the number of people per 100 sq km ⇒ A = 500 ⇒ B = 50 ⇒ C = 150 ⇒ D = 200 ⇒ E = 400 ⇒ F = 150 So, the second largest value is of E = 400

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Question 69archived

If 9x - [5(2x + 1)/2] = 9/2, then the value of x is?

  1. A
    7/4
  2. B
    -7/4
  3. C
    4/7
  4. D
    -4/7
Show answer
A. 7/4

Multiply the equation throughout by 2 to clear the denominator: \[18x-5(2x+1)=9\] Expand and simplify: \[18x-10x-5=9 \implies 8x=14\] Therefore \(x=\dfrac{14}{8}=\dfrac{7}{4}\).

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Question 70archived

The sum of a fraction and 10 times its reciprocal is 37/4. What is the fraction?

  1. A
    5/4
  2. B
    4/5
  3. C
    3/4
  4. D
    4/3
Show answer
A. 5/4

Let the fraction be \(x\). Then: \[x+\frac{10}{x}=\frac{37}{4}\] Multiply through by \(4x\): \[4x^2-37x+40=0\] Factor: \((4x-5)(x-8)=0\), giving \(x=\tfrac{5}{4}\) or \(x=8\). Among the options, the valid fraction is \(\dfrac{5}{4}\).

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Question 71archived

What is the distance between the points (3, 6) and (-2, -6)?

  1. A
    15
  2. B
    13
  3. C
    11
  4. D
    12
Show answer
B. 13

Apply the distance formula: \[d=\sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2}\] With \((3,6)\) and \((-2,-6)\): \[d=\sqrt{(-5)^2+(-12)^2}=\sqrt{25+144}=\sqrt{169}=13\] Therefore the distance is 13 units.

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Question 72archived

The 2nd and 6th term of an arithmetic progression are 8 and 20 respectively. What is the 20th term?

  1. A
    56
  2. B
    65
  3. C
    62
  4. D
    59
Show answer
C. 62

For an AP, \(a_n=a_1+(n-1)d\). From \(a_2=8\) and \(a_6=20\): \[a_6-a_2=4d=12 \implies d=3\] Then \(a_1=a_2-d=8-3=5\). 20th term: \[a_{20}=5+19\times3=5+57=62\]

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Question 73archived

What is the equation of a line which has 3 as x-intercept and -5 as y-intercept?

  1. A
    3x - 5y = 15
  2. B
    5x - 3y = 15
  3. C
    5x + 3y = 15
  4. D
    3x + 5y = 15
Show answer
B. 5x - 3y = 15

Using the intercept form with \(a=3\) and \(b=-5\): \[\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{-5}=1\] Multiply throughout by 15: \[5x-3y=15\] Check: setting \(y=0\) gives \(x=3\); setting \(x=0\) gives \(y=-5\). Both intercepts match.

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Question 74archived

What is the difference between the population densities of C and D?

  1. A
    120
  2. B
    200
  3. C
    50
  4. D
    100
Show answer
C. 50

Population density of C = 150 people/km 2 Population density of D = 200 people/km 2 ∴ Required difference = 200 - 150 = 50 people/km 2

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Question 75archived

What is the reflection of the point (3, 2) in the line y = -2?

  1. A
    (-7, 2)
  2. B
    (-3, -6)
  3. C
    (-7, -2)
  4. D
    (3, -6)
Show answer
D. (3, -6)

For reflection across a horizontal line \(y=c\), the x-coordinate is unchanged and the new y is \(2c-y\). Here \(c=-2\) and the point is \((3,2)\): \[y'=2(-2)-2=-6\] Therefore the reflected point is (3, -6).

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Question 76archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Recede

  1. A
    Ebb
  2. B
    Fade
  3. C
    Extend
  4. D
    Wane
Show answer
C. Extend

Recede means to move back, withdraw, or diminish. Its antonym must convey forward motion or growth. Extend means to stretch out, lengthen, or move forward — the direct opposite of receding. Ebb, fade, and wane are all synonyms of recede (to diminish/decline), so they are eliminated.

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Question 77archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Ravine

  1. A
    Lucid
  2. B
    Patent
  3. C
    Abyss
  4. D
    Palpable
Show answer
C. Abyss

Ravine is a deep, narrow gorge or chasm with steep sides. Abyss means a deep or bottomless chasm/cavity — the closest match. Lucid (clear), patent (obvious), and palpable (tangible/perceptible) describe clarity or perception, not geographical depth.

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Question 78archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. _____________ to my political rival's statement, the data reveals crime has not increased in this country.

  1. A
    Accepting
  2. B
    Contrary
  3. C
    Reference
  4. D
    Assisting
Show answer
B. Contrary

The sentence contrasts the rival's statement with data showing crime has not increased — a contradiction. The idiomatic phrase here is "Contrary to ...", which signals opposition. "Accepting to" and "Assisting to" are unidiomatic and reverse the meaning. "Reference to" merely mentions and doesn't convey opposition. Only Contrary fits both the idiom and the contrast.

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Question 79archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect /Direct speech. My father said to the stranger, "Where do you live?"

  1. A
    My father asked the stranger where he lives.
  2. B
    My father asked the stranger where he has been living.
  3. C
    My father asked where he lives to the stranger.
  4. D
    My father asked the stranger where he lived.
Show answer
D. My father asked the stranger where he lived.

For a wh-question in indirect speech: change said to → asked, retain the question word where as the link, use assertive word order (subject + verb), and backshift the tense since the reporting verb is past. Simple present live becomes simple past lived; the pronoun you → he (the stranger). This gives: My father asked the stranger where he lived.

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Question 80archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Rebuff

  1. A
    Rebuke
  2. B
    Snub
  3. C
    Nix
  4. D
    Praise
Show answer
D. Praise

Rebuff means to reject or refuse abruptly. Its antonym must express approval or acceptance. Praise — expressing warm approval or admiration — is the direct opposite. Rebuke (criticise sharply), snub (reject disdainfully), and nix (cancel/refuse) all carry rejection or disapproval, so they are synonyms or near-synonyms, not antonyms.

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Question 81archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Interrupt (a public speaker) with derisive or aggressive comments or abuse

  1. A
    Heckle
  2. B
    Soothe
  3. C
    Allay
  4. D
    Dulcify
Show answer
A. Heckle

To heckle is to interrupt a public speaker or performer with derisive, aggressive or abusive remarks — the exact definition in the question. Soothe, allay and dulcify all mean to calm, ease or sweeten, the opposite intent.

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Question 82archived

The author would prefer to be seen wearing all of the following types of clothes, except?

  1. A
    Those with the Christian Dior label.
  2. B
    Any Japanese brand
  3. C
    Clothes stitched by herself.
  4. D
    None of the above
Show answer
A. Those with the Christian Dior label.

The author cuts the Christian Dior label out of the coat and explicitly says you cannot have Christian Dior where she works. Vintage Dior, Japanese brands, and self-stitched (no-label) clothes are all listed as acceptable. Hence the one type she would not want to be seen in is clothes with the Christian Dior label.

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Question 83archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. The Captain along with (1)/his team has been (2)/invited to the function.(3)/No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
D. 4

When a singular subject is followed by a parenthetical phrase introduced by along with, as well as, together with, or in addition to, the verb agrees with the first subject, not with the noun inside the phrase. Here the subject is The Captain (singular), so the singular auxiliary has been is correct. Every part of the sentence is grammatically sound, so the answer is (4) No Error.

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Question 84archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". The shoes were very expensive; I couldn't afford (to buying) them.

  1. A
    buying
  2. B
    to buy
  3. C
    bought
  4. D
    no improvement
Show answer
B. to buy

The verb afford is followed by the infinitive (to + base form), not by a gerund. "Afford to buying" mixes the infinitive marker with the -ing form and is ungrammatical. The correct improvement is to buy: "I couldn't afford to buy them." Compare: can't afford to eat out, couldn't afford to take a holiday.

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Question 85archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". After they (had finished) eating they went for a walk.

  1. A
    no improvement
  2. B
    have finished
  3. C
    finish
  4. D
    will finish
Show answer
A. no improvement

Two past actions are described: finishing eating, then going for a walk. For the earlier of two past actions, English uses the past perfect (had + past participle); for the later action, the simple past. "had finished" correctly marks the earlier action and "went" marks the later one, so no improvement is needed. "have finished" (present perfect), "finish" and "will finish" all break the past-time sequence.

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Question 86archived

What has been the problem with London trains lately?

  1. A
    The trains have become awful
  2. B
    There are more trains during rush hour
  3. C
    People are late to work because of train delays
  4. D
    Trains are cancelled without prior intimation
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D. Trains are cancelled without prior intimation

The narrator says trains on her line have been getting cancelled "with no warning" — i.e. without any advance notice to commuters. This is precisely what option (4) Trains are cancelled without prior intimation states. "Awful trains" is too vague, "more trains during rush hour" contradicts the passage, and "delays" misnames the issue (it is cancellation, not delay).

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Question 87archived

Which of the following situations creates a 'bad day' for the author?

  1. A
    Being caught wearing a cheap brand coat.
  2. B
    Cancelled trains during London rush hour.
  3. C
    When other employees are on time but she is late
  4. D
    Having to spend money on expensive clothes
Show answer
B. Cancelled trains during London rush hour.

The narrator left early "in case it was a bad day," then concludes it is a "god-awful day" — and the reason she gives is that the railway keeps cancelling trains on her line without warning during rush hour. Option (2) Cancelled trains during London rush hour captures this exactly. The coat, other employees, and clothing expenses are mentioned elsewhere but are not what makes the day "bad."

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Question 88archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    Castegated
  2. B
    Castigatad
  3. C
    Castigated
  4. D
    Casttigated
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C. Castigated

The verb is castigate (to reprimand severely); its past tense adds -d to give castigated — single t at the start, i in the second syllable, -ed ending. "Castegated" uses the wrong vowel (e instead of i); "Castigatad" uses the wrong ending (-ad instead of -ed); "Casttigated" doubles the t. Only option (3) Castigated is correctly spelt.

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Question 89archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Realm

  1. A
    Vault
  2. B
    Azure
  3. C
    Lid
  4. D
    Dimension
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D. Dimension

Realm means a domain, sphere, or area of activity or knowledge (e.g. "the realm of physics"). Among the options, Dimension — in its sense of an aspect or sphere of something — comes closest to this meaning. Vault (secure room/arch), Azure (sky-blue colour) and Lid (cover) are unrelated. Hence the answer is Dimension.

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Question 90archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Best of both worlds

  1. A
    Two best teams compete with each other.
  2. B
    A situation wherein someone has the privilege of enjoying two different opportunities.
  3. C
    Gods who rule heaven and earth.
  4. D
    A person who is respected even by his enemies.
Show answer
B. A situation wherein someone has the privilege of enjoying two different opportunities.

The idiom "best of both worlds" describes a situation in which a person enjoys the advantages of two different situations or opportunities at the same time, without the drawbacks of either — e.g. living in a quiet village but having quick rail access to the city. This matches option (2): a situation wherein someone has the privilege of enjoying two different opportunities. The other options describe competition, mythology, or respect — none of which capture the dual-benefit idea.

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Question 91archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. My sister had a tough time (1)/removing the chewing gum that (2)/stuck with her hair.(3)/No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
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C. 3

The error lies in Part (3): "stuck with her hair." When something physically adheres to a surface, the correct preposition is to (or sometimes on): gum sticks to hair, a stamp sticks to an envelope. Stuck with is idiomatic for being burdened with something ("stuck with the bill") — it does not describe physical adherence. The phrase should read "stuck to her hair." Hence the answer is (3).

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Question 92archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. The room which yielded so X-the fourth floor of a Y-boarding-house in Bleecker Street Z-much satisfaction to the two boys was on

  1. A
    XZY
  2. B
    YXZ
  3. C
    ZXY
  4. D
    ZYX
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C. ZXY

The opening fragment is "The room which yielded so..." — the next part must continue this idea. Z ("much satisfaction to the two boys was on") completes "yielded so much satisfaction... was on". X ("the fourth floor of a") then specifies what it was on. Y ("boarding-house in Bleecker Street") names the building. The full sentence reads: "The room which yielded so much satisfaction to the two boys was on the fourth floor of a boarding-house in Bleecker Street." Hence the order is ZXY.

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Question 93archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. By the time government X-offices or educational institutions Y-open, many daylights Z-hours are already lost

  1. A
    YZX
  2. B
    ZXY
  3. C
    XYZ
  4. D
    XZY
Show answer
C. XYZ

The opening fragment is "By the time government...", so the next part must name the subject. X ("offices or educational institutions") supplies the subject. Y ("open, many daylights") gives the verb and begins the main clause. Z ("hours are already lost") completes that clause. The full sentence reads: "By the time government offices or educational institutions open, many daylight hours are already lost." Hence the order is XYZ.

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Question 94archived

What aspect of the coat she wanted to hide?

  1. A
    That is was too warm.
  2. B
    That it was a cheap copy.
  3. C
    That it was expensive.
  4. D
    That it was from a luxury market.
Show answer
B. That it was a cheap copy.

The narrator bought the coat for £9.99 at a flea market but found it bore a Christian Dior label — almost certainly a counterfeit. She cut the label out before going to a workplace where overt designer labels (especially fakes) are frowned upon. By removing the label she hides the fact that the coat is a cheap copy of a luxury brand — option (2). The coat is not actually expensive, not from a luxury market, and warmth is irrelevant.

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Question 95archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Not being what it purports to be

  1. A
    Legitimate
  2. B
    Palpable
  3. C
    Evident
  4. D
    Spurious
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D. Spurious

Spurious means false, fake, or not genuine — exactly "not being what it purports to be" (e.g. a spurious argument, a spurious signature). Legitimate is the opposite (genuine, lawful). Palpable means tangible or strongly felt. Evident means clearly visible. Only Spurious captures the idea of a thing falsely claiming to be something it is not.

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Question 96archived

Why is her boss angry?

  1. A
    Because he has started suffering from fits.
  2. B
    Because it is a bad day.
  3. C
    Because she was late the day before.
  4. D
    Because employees are coming late to work.
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D. Because employees are coming late to work.

The passage says the boss "has started throwing all sorts of hissy fits about people 'swanning in at all times.'" Hissy fits = outbursts of anger; swanning in at all times = arriving casually and at irregular (late) hours. So the boss is angry because employees are coming late to work — option (4). The "fits" are tantrums, not a medical condition; the bad day and the narrator's own prior lateness are not given as the cause.

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Question 97archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Common adverse __________ of this medication include, bleeding, nausea and vomiting.

  1. A
    affects
  2. B
    effect
  3. C
    effects
  4. D
    affect
Show answer
C. effects

Affect is normally a verb (to influence); effect is normally a noun (a result). The blank needs a noun meaning "results / consequences" of the medication, so it must be a form of effect. Because three outcomes are listed (bleeding, nausea, vomiting), the plural form is required. Hence the correct word is effects: "Common adverse effects of this medication include bleeding, nausea and vomiting."

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Question 98archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Ball is in your court

  1. A
    Put the blame on the other person.
  2. B
    Request someone to return your belonging.
  3. C
    It is up to you to make the next decision or step.
  4. D
    To tell someone politely about his/her mistake.
Show answer
C. It is up to you to make the next decision or step.

The idiom "the ball is in your court" comes from racquet sports: once the ball crosses to your side, it is your turn to play. Figuratively, it means the responsibility for the next move or decision now rests with you. This matches "It is up to you to make the next decision or step." The other options describe blame-shifting, returning belongings, or pointing out mistakes none of which capture the "your turn to act" sense.

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Question 99archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    poseses
  2. B
    posesses
  3. C
    possesses
  4. D
    posseses
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C. possesses

The base verb is possess, which has a double s in the middle (pos-sess) and a double s at the end (possess). Its third-person singular form adds -es: possess + es = possesses. The other spellings each drop one of the double s pairs and are therefore incorrect.

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Question 100archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. Sarla changed the curtains.

  1. A
    Sarla changes the curtains.
  2. B
    The curtains were changed by Sarla.
  3. C
    The curtain was changed by Sarla.
  4. D
    Sarla was the one by whom the curtains were changed.
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B. The curtains were changed by Sarla.

The active sentence "Sarla changed the curtains" is in the simple past. The passive structure is Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject. The object the curtains (plural) becomes the subject, so we use were; the past participle of change is changed, and the agent becomes by Sarla. This gives "The curtains were changed by Sarla." Option 3 wrongly switches to singular curtain/was, and option 4 is a wordy cleft, not a direct passive.

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