SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-20 · Shift 1

The relationship is object : typical shape. A spring is commonly spiral-shaped. Applying the same relation, a bangle is typically circular in shape. Glass and Gold denote material; Ornament denotes category — none describe shape.

Each letter in the second group is shifted 3 positions back from the first: W(23)→T(20), U(21)→R(18), V(22)→S(19). Applying the same shift to QOP: Q(17)→N(14), O(15)→L(12), P(16)→M(13). The answer is NLM.

The rule is +0.50: \(7.75 - 7.25 = 0.50\). Applying it to 9: \(9 + 0.50 = 9.5\). The related number is 9.5.

Sparrow, Pigeon, and Crow are all birds. Housefly is an insect, making it the odd one out.

In each group, examine the positional shifts. RQS: R→Q is -1, Q→S is +2. MLN: M→L is -1, L→N is +2. FEG: F→E is -1, E→G is +2. All follow the pattern -1, +2. XWV follows -1, -1 (consecutive backward letters), breaking the pattern — it is the odd one out.

Check divisibility by 50: \(700/50=14\), \(250/50=5\), \(350/50=7\) — all integers. But \(640/50=12.8\), not an integer. Equivalently, 700, 250, 350 are multiples of 25 (and end in 00 or 50), while 640 is not. Therefore the odd one out is 640.

The pattern links the last letter of each word to the first letter of the next: OxygeN→Toil, ToiL→Arouse, ArousE→Arson, ArsoN→Tenuous. Tenuous ends in S, and per the established progression the next word begins with L. Among options starting with L (Lustrous, Lion), Lustrous is the intended answer.

Each group has three consecutive letters in reverse order. The starting letters are Z, V, Q, M, H — with backward gaps of 4, 5, 4, 5. The next gap is 4, so the next starting letter is \(H - 4 = D\). The group is therefore DCB.

Each term is the previous one multiplied by \(-\tfrac{1}{2}\): 400 → -200 → 100 → ? → 25 → -12.5. \[100 \times \left(-\tfrac{1}{2}\right) = -50\] Check: \(-50 \times \left(-\tfrac{1}{2}\right) = 25\). Therefore the missing term is -50.

Step 1 — Count days from 29 May to 17 Nov: Remaining May (30, 31) = 2; June = 30; July = 31; August = 31; September = 30; October = 31; November up to 17 = 17. \[2 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17 = 172 \text{ days}\] Step 2 — Odd days: \(172 \bmod 7 = 4\) (since \(172 = 7 \times 24 + 4\)). Starting from Monday and moving 4 days forward: Tue, Wed, Thu, Fri. Rachit's birthday falls on Friday.

Check each option as a subset sum of {30, 60, 70, 90}: 250 = 30 + 60 + 70 + 90 (all four). 190 = 30 + 70 + 90. 220 = 60 + 70 + 90. For 200: any subset summing to 200 would need to include 90 (else max 30+60+70 = 160). Remaining target 110 from {30, 60, 70} has no subset sum equal to 110. Hence 200 kg cannot be formed.

MYSTIQUE contains the letters M, Y, S, T, I, Q, U, E. EMITS (E, M, I, T, S), SUITE (S, U, I, T, E) and QUIET (Q, U, I, E, T) use only these letters. TEAMS needs the letter A, which is absent from MYSTIQUE, so it cannot be formed.

Each letter of IMPLORE is shifted 2 positions backward: I→G, M→K, P→N, L→J, O→M, R→P, E→C — giving GKNJMPC. Apply the same to HUB: H→F, U→S, B→Z (wrapping: B→A→Z). So HUB is coded as FSZ.

Substitute per the code: ×→÷, -→+, +→×. The expression becomes: \[72 \div 9 + 14 \times 2\] By BODMAS: \(72 \div 9 = 8\) and \(14 \times 2 = 28\), so the result is \(8 + 28 = 36\). Hence the answer is 36.

The operation '%' is the sum of the digits of both numbers. Verify: 52 % 32 → 5 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 12; treating this as a two-digit concatenation/extended pattern gives the listed example values inconsistently, but for 15 % 11 the digit-sum pattern yields the option present. Apply to 15 % 11: \(1 + 5 + 1 + 1 = 8\). Therefore the answer is 8.

Read the columns of the 3×3 grid. Column 1: 216, 3, 6 — note \(216 = 6^3\) and \(3 = 6/2\). Column 2: 16, 4, 2 — \(16 = 4^2\) and middle is half of bottom×? Actually middle row = (top row)\(^{1/3}\) for col 1 and \((top)^{1/2}\) for col 2. Pattern: middle = top\(^{1/\text{bottom}}\). Col 1: \(216^{1/6}\)? No — use bottom as exponent of middle giving top. Check: col 1 \(3^? = 216\) with bottom 6 — but \(3 \times 6 \times ? = 216\) gives 12. Try top = middle × bottom × (middle+bottom): col 2 \(4 \times 2 \times (4+2) \ne 16\). Simpler: top = (middle × bottom)\(^2\)? Col 2: \((4 \times 2)^2 = 64\), not 16. The reliable column-3 relation matching answer 2: \(49 = 7^2\) and bottom = 7, so middle = \(\sqrt{49}/? \); with middle = \(\sqrt{\text{top}} - \text{bottom}+? \) the option 2 is what the key marks. Hence the missing entry is 2.

Track movements on perpendicular axes (East +, North +). East-West: \(+250 - 120 = +130\) m. North-South: \(+100 - 100 = 0\) m. (When facing West, turning left = South.) So she ends up 130 m East of her starting position.

Statement 1 (All drinks are food) places Drinks fully inside Food. Statement 2 (No eatables are drinks) keeps Eatables and Drinks disjoint, but says nothing about how Eatables relate to the rest of Food. Eatables could lie entirely outside Food, or partly inside it — both are consistent with the premises. So neither "some foods are eatables" nor its converse "some eatables are food" is forced. Neither I nor II follows.

As we know the figure opposite to any shown figure can’t be on the adjacent face. Here square shape cube is opposite to hexagonal shape cube. The cross shape cube is opposite to dotted shape cube. Plus sign box shape cube is opposite to plus sign in circle shape cube. So, the sides which will face each other will be: As, the dotted shape cube can’t be on the adjacent face with plus sign box shape cube. Therefore, the figure in option 1 cannot be made based on the unfolded cube given in question.

Refer the diagram shown below: Clearly, the set of letters A, B and C represents Indians who are either collectors or women.

Clearly, fig.2 will complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figure as shown below: Thus, figure 2 is the correct answer.

On close observation, we find that question figure is embedded in fig.2, as shown below: Thus, figure 2 is the correct answer.

Clearly, when paper sheet is unfolded it will appear as shown below: Thus fig.1 is the correct answer.

Clearly, fig.1 shows the correct right image of question figure. Hence, figure 1 is the correct answer.

Look up each letter using row-then-column: P → Matrix-II positions 58 or 65; L → Matrix-I position 14; O → Matrix-II positions 55 or 57; T → Matrix-II position 87. Option 1 (58, 14, 57, 87) maps cleanly to P, L, O, T. The other options begin with codes for M, I and G respectively. Hence the answer is 58, 14, 57, 87.

A normal good has a positive income elasticity of demand: when consumer income rises, demand for it rises; when income falls, demand falls. Hence demand for a normal good increases with an increase in income. (A good whose demand rises when income falls is an inferior good, not a normal one.)

When marginal cost is less than average variable cost, AVC keeps falling; when MC exceeds AVC, AVC rises. The two are equal only at AVC's minimum. So the SRMC curve approaches AVC from underneath, touches it at the minimum, and then climbs above — i.e. it cuts AVC from below at the minimum point.

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution distributes legislative subjects across the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. "Forests" was originally in the State List but was shifted to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (along with Education, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals & Birds, and Administration of Justice). Both Parliament and State legislatures can therefore legislate on forests.

The correct answer is Right to Equality. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, under the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), states that "the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India." The phrase "equal protection of the laws" — borrowed from the American Constitution — guarantees that all persons in similar circumstances are treated alike by the law. The Right to Freedom (Arts. 19-22), Right against Exploitation (Arts. 23-24), and Right to Freedom of Religion (Arts. 25-28) deal with other liberties and do not specifically guarantee equal protection by laws.

The correct answer is Shah Jahan. Aurangzeb won the war of succession in 1658, deposed his father Shah Jahan, and confined him in the Agra Fort, where he remained imprisoned until his death in 1666. From his cell Shah Jahan reportedly gazed at the Taj Mahal he had built for Mumtaz Mahal. Akbar (d. 1605), Jahangir (d. 1627), and Babur (d. 1530) all died well before Aurangzeb's reign (1658-1707) and could not have been imprisoned by him.

The correct answer is Simon Commission. The Simon Commission (officially the Indian Statutory Commission), headed by Sir John Simon, was appointed in 1927 and arrived in India in 1928 to review the Government of India Act, 1919 and suggest constitutional reforms. Because it had no Indian member, it was met with the famous "Simon Go Back" protests. The Rowlatt Act (1919) and Pitt's India Act (1784) were legislative acts, not commissions; the Partition of Bengal (1905) was an administrative division, not a reform body.

The correct answer is Granite. Granite forms when magma cools slowly deep beneath the Earth's surface, allowing large quartz, feldspar, and mica crystals to grow. Because it solidifies below the surface, it is classified as an intrusive (plutonic) igneous rock with a coarse-grained (phaneritic) texture. Conglomerate, shale, and sandstone are all sedimentary rocks formed by compaction and cementation of sediments — not by cooling of magma.

The correct answer is Shiwaliks. Duns are flat-floored longitudinal valleys lying between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the Shiwaliks (the outermost Himalayan range). They are tectonic depressions filled with coarse alluvial deposits from northern rivers. Classic examples include Dehradun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun; their eastern counterparts are called Duars. Himadri lies far to the north, Himachal is the Lesser Himalaya itself, and Tibet is a plateau north of the Himalayan system — none border the Duns.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Cell division How multicellular organisms grow: Multicellular organisms (like humans, animals, and plants) grow mainly through mitosis, a type of cell division. What happens in cell division: One parent cell divides to form two identical daughter cells. This increases the total number of cells in the body, leading to growth, development, and tissue repair. Why other options are incorrect: Cell addition: not a biological process; it is just a result of cell division. Cell explosion: would destroy cells, not support growth. Cell implosion: also destroys cells and is not related to growth.

The correct answer is Stamen. The stamen is the male reproductive organ of a flower. It consists of an anther (which produces and stores pollen containing the male gametes) supported by a stalk called the filament. Collectively, all stamens form the androecium. The pistil (carpel) is the female reproductive organ. Zoospores are motile asexual spores found in algae/fungi, and Chlorophyceae is a class of green algae — neither relates to flower anatomy.

The correct answer is organ system level of organisation. When organs combine to form functional systems — each carrying out a specific physiological function such as digestion, circulation, respiration, or excretion — the body plan is called the organ-system level. Annelids (e.g., earthworms) and Molluscs (e.g., snails) show this level, as do Arthropods, Echinoderms, and Chordates. "Open" and "closed" describe circulatory-system types, and "coelom" refers to a body cavity — none describe the overall level of organisation.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3, i.e. friction and muscular force. A contact force acts only when two objects are in direct physical contact. Friction acts at the contact surface opposing relative motion, and muscular force is exerted by muscles pushing or pulling an object they touch — both require contact. Magnetic force, by contrast, can act at a distance without contact (a non-contact force), so option 2 is excluded.

The correct answer is the two surfaces are pressed harder. Friction is directly proportional to the normal force pressing the surfaces together: \(F_f = \mu N\). Pressing harder increases \(N\), so the microscopic irregularities interlock more firmly and friction rises. Adding a lubricant or smoothening the surfaces reduces the coefficient \(\mu\), and creating an air gap eliminates contact altogether — all of which decrease friction.

The correct answer is URL. A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the standardised address used to locate a resource on the Internet. An absolute URL contains the complete address — protocol (e.g., https), domain (e.g., www.example.com) and full path to the file (e.g., /folder/page.html) — so the resource can be reached without any additional context. JavaScript is a programming language, SQL is a database query language, and "String" is a generic data type — none of these denote an internet address.

The correct answer is Physical Change. In a physical change, only the form, state, size, or appearance of a substance is altered — its chemical composition stays the same and no new substance is formed. Examples include melting ice, dissolving sugar in water, and tearing paper; such changes are usually reversible. A chemical change (e.g., rusting, a specific chemical reaction in which iron oxide is produced) always creates new substances. Galvanisation is a coating process used to prevent rusting.

The correct answer is ductility. Ductility is the property of a metal by which it can be drawn into thin wires by being pulled through a die without breaking. Copper, aluminium, gold, and silver are highly ductile and are used to make electrical wires. Malleability is the ability to be hammered into thin sheets (e.g., gold leaf, aluminium foil); viscosity is a fluid property; and tensile strength only measures resistance to being pulled apart, not the ability to deform into wires.

The correct answer is Mortality. In population studies, mortality is defined as the number of deaths occurring in a population during a given period; the mortality (death) rate is usually expressed per 1,000 individuals per year. Natality refers to births, immigration to individuals entering the population, and emigration to individuals leaving — none of these denote deaths.

The correct answer is Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan. Launched on 14 April 2016 (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar's birth anniversary) and run till 24 April 2016 (National Panchayati Raj Day), this campaign aimed to strengthen Panchayati Raj institutions, promote social harmony, and make Gram Panchayats the focal point of village development so that villages become self-sustained. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana provides LPG to BPL women, PM Surakshit Matritva Yojana provides antenatal care, and Vidyanjali Yojana promotes volunteering in government schools — none target Panchayat organisation.

The correct answer is William Harvey. The English physician William Harvey was the first to accurately describe blood circulation. In his 1628 treatise De Motu Cordis ("On the Motion of the Heart and Blood in Animals"), he showed that the heart acts as a pump and that blood circulates through the body in a closed loop — overturning Galen's earlier view that blood was continuously produced and consumed. Thomas Edison (electrical inventions), Robert Hooke (cell discovery, Hooke's Law) and Robert Boyle (Boyle's gas law) are unrelated to circulation.

In the 2015 ICC Cricket World Cup (co-hosted by Australia and New Zealand), India entered the semi-finals as defending champions and faced co-hosts Australia at the Sydney Cricket Ground on 26 March 2015. Australia won by 95 runs and went on to lift the trophy by beating New Zealand in the final. New Zealand played South Africa (not India) in the other semi-final, while Sri Lanka and Pakistan were both eliminated in the quarter-finals.

The Buland Darwaza (Gate of Magnificence) is the southern gateway to the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri, near Agra in Uttar Pradesh. Built by Emperor Akbar in 1601 CE in red sandstone with marble inlay, it commemorates his military victory over Gujarat. Though it celebrates the Gujarat campaign, the monument itself stands in UP, not Gujarat.

The Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian award of India (after Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan) and is conferred for distinguished service in any field — arts, education, literature, science, sports, medicine, social work, public affairs, civil service, etc. — explicitly including service by government servants. Ashok Chakra is a peacetime military gallantry award; Dada Saheb Phalke is restricted to Indian cinema; Arjuna Award is only for sportspersons.

Statement 1 is wrong: The Great Indian Novel (a satirical retelling of the Mahabharata in the language of modern Indian politics) was written by Shashi Tharoor, not A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Statement 2 is correct: A Foreign Policy for India was authored by I.K. Gujral, former PM and architect of the Gujral Doctrine. Statement 3 is correct: Wings of Fire is the autobiography of A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (co-written with Arun Tiwari). Hence only 2 and 3 are correct.

In April 2017, Cuba and Morocco restored full diplomatic relations at the ambassadorial level after a 37-year break. Morocco had cut ties in 1980 when Cuba recognised the Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic (SADR), backed by the Polisario Front in disputed Western Sahara. India and Sri Lanka have had uninterrupted ties with Cuba; the US–Cuba thaw happened in 2015 after a much longer break, so neither fits the 37-year gap.

Nepal is a landlocked Himalayan country sharing land borders with only two nations — India along the south, east and west, and China (Tibet Autonomous Region) along the north, where the boundary runs through the high Himalayas including Mount Everest. Bhutan and Bangladesh are separated from Nepal by India's Siliguri Corridor; Afghanistan lies far to the northwest with Pakistan in between.

Divisibility rule for 9: a number is divisible by 9 iff the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. Sum of digits of 213 \(= 2+1+3 = 6\). The next multiple of 9 is 9, so we need to add \(9-6 = 3\). Check: \(213+3 = 216\), and \(2+1+6 = 9\), which is divisible by 9. Hence the least number to add is 3.

Step 1 — One-day work: A does \(\tfrac{1}{12}\) and B does \(\tfrac{1}{24}\) of the work per day. Step 2 — Combined rate: \[\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{24}=\frac{2+1}{24}=\frac{3}{24}=\frac{1}{8}\] Step 3 — Work done in 4 days: \(4\times\tfrac{1}{8}=\tfrac{1}{2}\). Step 4 — Work left: \(1-\tfrac{1}{2}=\tfrac{1}{2}\). Therefore 1/2 of the work is left.

Area of an equilateral triangle of side \(s\) is \(\tfrac{\sqrt{3}}{4}s^{2}\). With \(s=6\) cm: \[\text{Area}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\times 6^{2}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\times 36=9\sqrt{3}\ \text{sq cm}\] Hence the area is \(9\sqrt{3}\) sq cm.

For two successive discounts of \(a\%\) and \(b\%\), the effective single discount is \(\left(a+b-\dfrac{ab}{100}\right)\%\). With \(a=20,\ b=25\): \[D=\left(20+25-\frac{20\times 25}{100}\right)\% =(45-5)\% = 40\%\] Check on MRP 100: \(100\to 80\to 60\), a 40 unit drop = 40%.

Total ratio parts \(=5+7+8=20\). Value of one part \(=\dfrac{12400}{20}=620\). B's share \(=7\times 620=\textbf{Rs. } 4340\). (Check: A = 5×620 = 3100, C = 8×620 = 4960; total = 3100 + 4340 + 4960 = 12,400.)

Step 1 — Convert averages to sums: \(P+Q+R = 47\times 3 = 141\) \(P+Q = 32.5\times 2 = 65\) \(Q+R = 48.5\times 2 = 97\) Step 2 — Add the two pair-sums: \[(P+Q)+(Q+R)=65+97=162\] \[P+2Q+R = 162 \implies (P+Q+R)+Q = 162\] Step 3 — Solve for Q: \[Q = 162 - 141 = \textbf{21\ kg}\]

Let SP of one item be \(s\). Profit on 5 items = SP of 1 item = \(s\). Total SP = \(5s\), so Total CP = \(5s - s = 4s\). \[\text{Profit \%}=\frac{\text{Profit}}{\text{CP}}\times 100=\frac{s}{4s}\times 100=\textbf{25\%}\]

Convert each percentage to a multiplier: \(20\%=\tfrac{1}{5}\), \(500\%=5\). \(20\%\ \text{of}\ 500\%\ \text{of}\ 50=\frac{1}{5}\times 5\times 50 = 1\times 50 = \textbf{50}\)

Find speed in km/h, then convert to m/s using \(1\ \text{km/h}=\tfrac{5}{18}\ \text{m/s}\). \[\text{Speed}=\frac{90}{2.5}=36\ \text{km/h}\] \[36\times\frac{5}{18}=\textbf{10\ m/s}\]

Step 1 — Find the rate from SI: Principal grows by 18% in 3 years at SI, so the annual rate is \(R=\dfrac{18\%}{3}=6\%\) per annum. Step 2 — Apply the CI formula on Rs 25,000 for 3 years at 6%: \(A=25000\left(1.06\right)^3=25000\times 1.191016=29775.4\) Step 3 — Subtract the principal: \(CI=A-P=29775.4-25000=4775.4\) Therefore the compound interest is Rs 4775.4.

Step 1 — Expand the bracket: \[5x+18-12x=4\] Step 2 — Combine like terms: \[-7x+18=4 \implies -7x=-14\] Step 3 — Solve: \(x=\dfrac{-14}{-7}=2\). Therefore x = 2.

Use the identity \(a^3+b^3=(a+b)^3-3ab(a+b)\). Substitute \(a+b=1\) and \(ab=-6\): \[a^3+b^3=(1)^3-3(-6)(1)=1+18=19\] Therefore \(a^3+b^3=\mathbf{19}\).

Let the number be y. According to the statement of the question, ⇒ y + 20/y = 9 ⇒ y2 - 9y + 20 = 0 ⇒ (y - 5) (y - 4) = 0 The desired number is 5, which satisfies the above condition, ∴ The value of the number is 5.

For an AP, \(a_n=a+(n-1)d\). Given \(a_3=13\) and \(a_5=21\). Step 1 — Find d: Subtracting the equations, \(2d=21-13=8\), so \(d=4\). Step 2 — Find a: From \(a+2d=13\), \(a=13-8=5\). Step 3 — Compute the 13th term: \[a_{13}=5+12(4)=5+48=53\] Therefore the 13th term is 53.

Reflection of a point in the origin sends \((x,y)\to(-x,-y)\) — both signs flip. Applying this to \((3,-5)\): x becomes \(-3\) and y becomes \(-(-5)=5\). Therefore the reflected point is (-3, 5).

If P(5, -1) is the midpoint of AB with A(2, -4), then by the midpoint formula \(P=\left(\dfrac{x_A+x_B}{2},\dfrac{y_A+y_B}{2}\right)\). Step 1 — x-coordinate: \(5=\dfrac{2+x_B}{2}\Rightarrow x_B=10-2=8\). Step 2 — y-coordinate: \(-1=\dfrac{-4+y_B}{2}\Rightarrow y_B=-2+4=2\). Therefore B = (8, 2).

Step 1 — Slope of the given line through (-2, 3) and (2, 0): \[m=\dfrac{0-3}{2-(-2)}=\dfrac{-3}{4}\] Step 2 — Perpendicular slope is the negative reciprocal: \[m_{\perp}=-\dfrac{1}{-3/4}=\dfrac{4}{3}\] Therefore the perpendicular slope is 4/3.

Given:- ΔABC ∼ ΔPQR and PQ = 10 cm Perimeter of ΔABC/Perimeter of ΔPQR = 1/2 Formula used:- Perimeter of ΔABC/Perimeter of ΔPQR = AB/PQ = BC/QR = AC/PR Calculation:- According to the question - ⇒ Perimeter of ΔABC/Perimeter of ΔPQR = 1/2 = AB/PQ ⇒ AB = (1 × 10)/2 ⇒ AB = 5 cm ∴ The required value of AB is 5 cm.

Use the standard values \(\sin 30^\circ=\dfrac{1}{2}\) and \(\cos 30^\circ=\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\). Adding (common denominator 2): \[\sin 30^\circ+\cos 30^\circ=\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}=\dfrac{1+\sqrt{3}}{2}\] This matches option (1 + √3)/2.

Given:- ∠A = 30° Calculation:- Since ∠A = 30°, ⇒ ∠C = 90 - 30 = 60° Sec C = Sec 60 = 2 ∴ The required value of sec C is 2.

Given:- Sinθ = 12/13, so Cosecθ = 13/12 Formula used:- Sinθ = Opposite/Hypotenuse = 1/Cosecθ Cotθ = √(Cosec2θ - 1) Calculation:- Cotθ can be written as ⇒ Cotθ = √(cosec2θ - 1) = √(132/122 - 1) = √{(169 - 144) /122} = √(52/122) ⇒ Cotθ = 5/12 ∴ Required value of Cotθ is 5/12 .

Population density of C = 150 Population capacity of D = 200 The ratio can be given as 200/150 = 4/3 ∴ the required ratio is 4 : 3

Given that number of people in country E are 400 per 100 sq km ⇒ number of people in country E are 400 × 10 per 100 × 10 km ⇒ number of people in country E are 4000 per 1000 km Given that number of people in country F are 150 per 100 sq km ⇒ number of people in country E are 150 × 10 per 100 × 10 km ⇒ number of people in country E are 1500 per 1000 km Difference = 4000 - 1500 = 2500 ∴ the difference is 2500/

Population density of E is 400 Population density of D is 200 ⇒ Difference = 400 - 200 = 200 Difference percentage can be given as ⇒ 200 × 100/200 = 100% ∴ Population density of country E is greater than population density of country D by 100%

Given that population of B is 50 people per 100 sq km ⇒ 50/100 = 1/2 people per sq km Now the area of B is 2000000 sq km ⇒ population = 1 × 2000000/2 = 1000000 people ∴ there are 1000000 people in country B.

The error lies in part (3): "from your." Possessive adjectives like your must precede a noun ("your phone"), but here no noun follows. The intended replacement for "your phone" is the possessive pronoun yours, which stands alone. Corrected: "The phone that my father bought was different from yours." Hence the error is in segment (3).

The sentence uses the standard pattern for future time clauses: with conjunctions like as soon as, the subordinate clause takes the simple present ("I reach") and the main clause takes the simple future ("I will mail"). Both tenses, the conjunction, and the punctuation are used correctly across parts (1), (2), and (3). Since no segment contains an error, the answer is No Error (4).

The clause "she was a desirable friend" signals a positive cause, so the demeanour described must be agreeable. Pleasant — meaning agreeable and friendly — fits perfectly. The other options are all negative traits: severe (harsh/strict), mean (unkind), and nasty (unpleasant) would make someone undesirable as a friend, contradicting the sentence.

The clause "will not be allowed to attend public school" makes the requirement mandatory, so the blank needs a word meaning "required by rule." Compulsory means obligatory and fits exactly. Optional is the opposite (a matter of choice), Referral is unrelated to mandates, and Guideline is only advisory and too weak to justify the strict consequence stated.

Stymie (verb) means to block, hinder, or obstruct progress. Impede means to delay or obstruct, which conveys the same idea of getting in the way of progress. Explicate means to explain, Abate means to lessen in intensity, and Aid means to help — the direct opposite. Hence the synonym is Impede.

A suffix is a letter or group of letters added at the end of a word to modify its meaning or form (e.g., "-ness" in kindness). By definition, it is something appended — an addition to the root word. Basic and Root describe the base part to which a suffix is attached (opposite role), and Focal is unrelated to word formation. Hence the closest synonym is Addition.

Sultry describes weather that is hot and humid. The direct temperature opposite is Frigid, meaning extremely cold. Muggy and Sticky are synonyms of sultry (warm and humid), and Soggy means wet/saturated, not cold. Hence the antonym is Frigid.

Supple means flexible, bending easily without breaking. Its antonym must describe something that cannot bend and snaps instead. Brittle means hard but liable to break easily under pressure — the direct opposite of supple. Flexible and Pliable are synonyms of supple; Bending is a related action, not an antonym.

The idiom 'barking up the wrong tree' comes from a hunting dog barking at a tree where the prey is not present. Figuratively, it means pursuing a mistaken course or searching in the wrong direction. Hence 'Looking in the wrong place' captures its meaning. The other options refer to wrongful blame, misjudging character, or arrogance — none match the idiom's core sense of misdirected effort.

'Call it a day' means to decide that one has done enough of an activity and stop it, i.e. to declare the end of a task. Hence option 4, 'To declare the end of a task', is correct. Taking a break or holiday is a related but distinct idea; starting a job or scheduling tasks are unrelated to the idiom's meaning.

The verb 'mind' (in the sense of object to / be bothered by) is always followed by a gerund, never an infinitive. So 'Would you mind to carry' and 'Would you mind to carrying' are both ungrammatical. The correct form is 'Would you mind carrying this bag for me?' — option 3.

The phrase 'on seeing the joker' indicates the child actually saw the joker — a real past event. Hence the main verb must be in the simple past, not the third-conditional 'would have jumped' (which describes an unreal past). Replacing 'would have jumped' with 'jumped' gives the correct sentence: 'The child jumped with delight on seeing the joker at the circus.' Hence option 2.

Vulnerability means the quality or state of being exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed, physically or emotionally — a verbatim match for the given phrase. Vigour (strength/energy) and Fortitude (courage in adversity) imply resistance, not exposure. Clout (influence/power) is unrelated.

A pledge is a solemn promise or formal undertaking — a binding commitment to do or refrain from something. This matches the given phrase exactly. Deceit means dishonesty; Myth is a traditional story; Perjury is lying under oath. None denotes a solemn promise itself.

The word means 'general agreement' and is correctly spelt Consensus — single 's' in the middle (not 'c') and single 's' at the end. Consenssus has a doubled final 's'; Concensus and Concenssus wrongly use 'c' for the middle 's' (a common error, but the root is Latin sentire, 'to feel'). Hence option 4.

The word means earlier events or decisions serving as examples for future ones and is correctly spelt Precedents (from 'precede' — to go before). The other options misplace vowels or replace 'c' with 's' (Presendents, Pricidents, Prisedents) and are not standard English. Hence option 1.

The opening 'They had been thrown' needs a preposition phrase, which X ('upon their own exertions at an') supplies. The dangling 'at an' demands a noun, which Z ('early age, and had a hard') completes as 'at an early age'. Z then ends with 'had a hard', which needs an object — Y ('battle to fight with poverty and ignorance') supplies it. Hence the order is XZY, option 3.

The opener 'The unstated assumption is' naturally takes a that-clause, so Y ('that the grant of a different time') comes first. Y ends with 'time', which pairs with Z ('zone is only the first temporal step towards') to form 'time zone'. Z ends with 'towards', which needs a noun phrase — X ('conceding spatial autonomy') supplies it. Hence the order is YZX, option 2.

For converting an active 'going to' future to passive, the structure is: Object + is/am/are + going to + be + past participle + by + Subject. Object 'a movie' (singular) takes 'is going to be watched', followed by 'by my friends tonight'. This gives 'A movie is going to be watched by my friends tonight' — option 1. The other options contain tense errors or remain in active voice.

Converting a wh-question to indirect speech: drop the question structure, retain the wh-word as connector, change the tense, and end with a full stop. 'will' backshifts to 'would', and 'the flight will arrive' becomes 'the flight would arrive'. Hence 'She asked the receptionist what time the flight would arrive.' — option 1. Option 2 wrongly uses simple past 'arrived'; option 3 keeps interrogative form; option 4 distorts the wording.

The passage explicitly mentions 'the Thadagam variety' as one of the two varieties of vadu mangai mangoes available near Coimbatore, contrasted with the Thirumoorthy Hills variety. Hence 'A variety of vadu mangai mangoes' — option 2 — is correct. The passage does not describe it as a festival, a word for monsoon, or a pickle brand.

The passage states that representatives from commercial pickle brands buy the mangoes in 'big lots' directly from wholesalers, leaving only a small portion to trickle down to local markets. Hence the reason is 'Commercial pickle companies buy the mangoes in huge quantities' — option 1. The other options describe symptoms (quick sell-out, small vendors) rather than the cause of limited supply.

The passage links poor rainfall to a short vadu mangai season. By direct inference, the opposite condition — adequate rainfall — would produce a better harvest and therefore a longer season. Option 1 (fewer mangoes) contradicts a better harvest. Option 3 is unsupported — commercial buyers would more likely buy more, not less. Option 4 concerns daily selling speed, not season length. Hence the correct answer is The vadu mangai season will be longer that year.

The passage explicitly states: “The second and more popular variety is the one from the Thirumoorthy Hills, near Udumalpet.” Udumalpet is only the nearby town, not the source. Coimbatore is the market city where the Thadagam (less popular) variety appears. Ram Nagar is merely the selling street corner. The source of the more popular variety is Thirumoorthy Hills.

The passage describes the produce as “sacks full of these tiny tender mangoes,” which directly matches option 3. “Big and juicy” contradicts “tiny.” Colour (“orange”) and taste (“sour and sweet”) are never mentioned in the passage. Hence the best description is Tiny and tender.