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SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-19 · Shift 2

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

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Question 1archived

Select the related word from the given alternatives. Swim : Water :: Fly : ?

  1. A
    Bird
  2. B
    Air
  3. C
    Wings
  4. D
    Plane
Show answer
B. Air

The relationship is action : medium — swimming takes place in water. Applying the same logic, flying takes place in air. "Bird" and "plane" are agents that fly; "wings" are the body parts/structures used for flight — none of these are the medium of the action.

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Question 2archived

Select the related letters from the given alternatives. GIK : PRT : : DFH : ?

  1. A
    LNP
  2. B
    MOQ
  3. C
    RPN
  4. D
    JLN
Show answer
B. MOQ

Within each triplet, consecutive letters differ by +2 (G,I,K → 7,9,11; P,R,T → 16,18,20; D,F,H → 4,6,8). The mapping from the first triplet to the second is a uniform shift of +9 positions: G(7)→P(16), I(9)→R(18), K(11)→T(20). Applying +9 to D, F, H: 4+9=13 (M), 6+9=15 (O), 8+9=17 (Q). Hence the answer is MOQ.

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Question 3archived

Select the related number from the given alternatives. 55 : 11 : : 125 : ?

  1. A
    22
  2. B
    5
  3. C
    25
  4. D
    101
Show answer
C. 25

The rule is divide the first number by 5: \(55 \div 5 = 11\). Applying the same rule to 125: \(125 \div 5 = 25\). Hence the related number is 25.

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Question 4archived

Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    Football
  2. B
    Basketball
  3. C
    Cricket ball
  4. D
    Volleyball
Show answer
C. Cricket ball

Football, Basketball, and Volleyball are all names of sports. Cricket ball, however, is not a sport — it is the equipment used in the sport of cricket. Hence Cricket ball is the odd one out.

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Question 5archived

Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    USQ
  2. B
    OMK
  3. C
    IGE
  4. D
    VUT
Show answer
D. VUT

Check the gap between consecutive letters in each group: USQ: 21, 19, 17 → gap of -2. OMK: 15, 13, 11 → gap of -2. IGE: 9, 7, 5 → gap of -2. VUT: 22, 21, 20 → gap of -1. Three groups skip one letter (-2 each step); VUT moves by just one letter (-1). Hence VUT is the odd one out.

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Question 6archived

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    110
  2. B
    147
  3. C
    154
  4. D
    198
Show answer
B. 147

An odd number is not divisible by 2 and ends in 1, 3, 5, 7, or 9. Checking each option: 110 (ends 0, even), 147 (ends 7, odd), 154 (ends 4, even), 198 (ends 8, even). Only 147 is odd while the other three are even, making it the odd one out.

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Question 7archived

A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. cry, dome, super, random, ?

  1. A
    reflex
  2. B
    done
  3. C
    formula
  4. D
    classify
Show answer
C. formula

The pattern is the letter count of each successive word, increasing by one: cry (3), dome (4), super (5), random (6). The next word must have 7 letters. Among the options, reflex (6), done (4), formula (7), classify (8) — only formula has 7 letters.

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Question 8archived

A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. OXXXXX, XXXXO, OXXX, XXO, OX, ?

  1. A
    X
  2. B
    XO
  3. C
    OO
  4. D
    O
Show answer
D. O

Two patterns run together. Length decreases by one each term: 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, so the next term has length 1. Position of O alternates: beginning, end, beginning, end, beginning, so the next O is at the end. A single-character string containing O satisfies both rules, giving O.

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Question 9archived

A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 1.5, 9/4, 3, ? , 4.5, 21/4

  1. A
    15/4
  2. B
    7/2
  3. C
    8
  4. D
    9
Show answer
A. 15/4

Convert to a common denominator of 4: \(\tfrac{6}{4}, \tfrac{9}{4}, \tfrac{12}{4}, ?, \tfrac{18}{4}, \tfrac{21}{4}\). The numerators 6, 9, 12, ?, 18, 21 form an arithmetic progression with common difference 3, so the missing numerator is \(12+3=15\). Therefore the missing term is \(\dfrac{15}{4}\).

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Question 10archived

Divyansh's birthday is on Sunday 16 th July. On what day of the week will be Shaan's Birthday in the same year if Shaan was born on 1 st August?

  1. A
    Tuesday
  2. B
    Monday
  3. C
    Wednesday
  4. D
    Friday
Show answer
A. Tuesday

Days from 16 July to 1 August: remaining July = \(31-16=15\); plus 1 day in August gives \(15+1=16\) days. Day shift: \(16 \div 7\) leaves remainder 2, so the day moves forward by 2. Sunday + 2 days = Tuesday.

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Question 11archived

The weights of 4 boxes are 30, 20, 50 and 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms; of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

  1. A
    200
  2. B
    190
  3. C
    140
  4. D
    160
Show answer
A. 200

Box weights: 30, 20, 50, 90 kg. List all subset sums (each box used at most once): 20, 30, 50, 70 (20+50), 80 (30+50), 90, 100 (30+20+50), 110 (20+90), 120 (30+90), 140 (50+90 or 30+20+90), 160 (20+50+90), 170 (30+50+90), 190 (all four). Options 190, 140, 160 all appear; 200 does not. Hence 200 kg cannot be formed.

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Question 12archived

From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. SCALDING

  1. A
    DICES
  2. B
    SNAIL
  3. C
    ALIGN
  4. D
    CLANG
Show answer
A. DICES

Letters available in SCALDING: S, C, A, L, D, I, N, G. Checking options: SNAIL (S, N, A, I, L), ALIGN (A, L, I, G, N) and CLANG (C, L, A, N, G) use only available letters. DICES requires E, which is not in SCALDING. Hence DICES cannot be formed.

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Question 13archived

If OUTLINE is coded as QWVNKPG, then how will MAN be coded as?

  1. A
    FVQ
  2. B
    RNE
  3. C
    OCP
  4. D
    RKX
Show answer
C. OCP

The code shifts each letter +2 positions in the alphabet: O→Q, U→W, T→V, L→N, I→K, N→P, E→G, giving QWVNKPG. Applying the same +2 shift to MAN: M→O, A→C, N→P. Hence MAN is coded as OCP.

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Question 14archived

In a certain code language, '+' represents '×', '-' represents '+', '×' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question? 50 + 3 ÷ 125 x 5 - 25 = ?

  1. A
    31
  2. B
    7
  3. C
    150
  4. D
    55
Show answer
C. 150

Replace operators per the code: + → ×, ÷ → -, × → ÷, - → +. Expression becomes \(50 \times 3 - 125 \div 5 + 25\). Applying BODMAS: \(125 \div 5 = 25\) and \(50 \times 3 = 150\), giving \(150 - 25 + 25 = 150\).

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Question 15archived

If 26#14 = 80; 5#3 = 16; 6#5 = 22; then what is the value of 14#5 = ?

  1. A
    17
  2. B
    38
  3. C
    4
  4. D
    9
Show answer
B. 38

Test the rule \(a \# b = (a+b) \times 2\): \((26+14)\times 2 = 80\), \((5+3)\times 2 = 16\), \((6+5)\times 2 = 22\). All three match. Applying it to 14#5: \((14+5)\times 2 = 19 \times 2 = 38\).

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Question 16archived

Select the missing number from the given responses.

Question figure
  1. A
    39
  2. B
    76
  3. C
    146
  4. D
    333
Show answer
B. 76

In the first row, the number at the end is obtained by adding the other 2 numbers First row: 117 + 28 = 145 Third row: 211 + 11 = 222 Similarly, 35 + ? = 111 ? = 111 - 35 → 76 Hence, the missing number is 76.

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Question 17archived

A and B start from the same point. A cycles 8 km South, then turns to her right and cycles 5 km. B cycles 3 km North, then turns West and cycles 5 km, then turns to her left and cycles 4 km. Where is B with respect to A now?

  1. A
    7 km North
  2. B
    7 km South
  3. C
    15 km North
  4. D
    15 km South
Show answer
A. 7 km North

A's path: 8 km South, then right (= West) 5 km. Final: 5 km West, 8 km South of start. B's path: 3 km North, then West 5 km, then left (from West = South) 4 km. Net: 5 km West, \(4-3=1\) km South of start. Both are 5 km West, so there is no East–West gap. B is 1 km South while A is 8 km South, so B is \(8-1=7\) km North of A.

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Question 18archived

Directions: In the question a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a strong argument. Statement: Should Chinese crackers be banned? Argument I: No, China will be hurt by this decision. Argument II: Yes, crackers kill insects.

  1. A
    Only argument I is strong.
  2. B
    Only argument II is strong.
  3. C
    Both I and II are strong.
  4. D
    Neither I nor II is strong.
Show answer
D. Neither I nor II is strong.

A strong argument must be directly relevant, substantial, and rooted in the country's own interest. Argument I ("China will be hurt") considers the exporting nation's loss, not the importing country's welfare, so it is weak. Argument II ("crackers kill insects") raises a trivial, tangential effect rather than the real concerns of pollution, noise, or safety, so it is also weak. Hence neither I nor II is strong.

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Question 19archived

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

Since the opposite sides cannot be adjacent in the cube, thus the cube in the first option is not possible. Hence, option 1 is the answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 20archived

In the following figure, square represents pharmacists, triangle represents Dancers, circle represents Gynecologists and rectangle represents Women. Which set of letters represents Gynecologists who are neither Women nor Dancers?

Question figure
  1. A
    F,B,H
  2. B
    B,D,H
  3. C
    D,E,A
  4. D
    C,H
Show answer
D. C,H

Gynecologists who are neither Women nor Dancers are represented by ‘C and H’.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 21archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Hence, option 4 will complete the given question figure.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 22archived

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

The question figure is embedded in the following figure; Hence, the given question figure is embedded in option 4.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 23archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Hence, the unfolded figure will be similar to option 4.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 24archived

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
C. Option C (shown in image)

A vertical mirror is placed, so the object at the left will appear at the right. The triangle will stay above the semi-circle but the triangle will be reversed, and thus the first two options eliminated. Also, the small circle at bottom left will appear at the bottom right and the triangle will point towards the right in the mirror, so the last option is also not possible. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 25archived

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix - I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix - II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 42, 34 etc. and ‘Z’ can be represented by 97, 69 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘ROPE’. Matrix-IMatrix-II 0123456789 0FFIHE5VYWWT 1HGBKE6TXNRZ 2EDMIH7UUUTX 3BAAEK8RTXPO 4JKKCG9VSZYN

  1. A
    10, 24, 56, 69
  2. B
    03, 02, 58, 79
  3. C
    85, 89, 88, 20
  4. D
    04, 32, 97, 65
Show answer
C. 85, 89, 88, 20

Locate each letter of ROPE in the matrices (row, column): R → Matrix-II (8,5) = 85; O → Matrix-II (8,9) = 89; P → Matrix-II (8,8) = 88; E → Matrix-I (2,0) = 20. The set 85, 89, 88, 20 matches option 3. Other options fail at the first code (10=H, 03=H, 04=E), so they cannot represent R.

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Question 26archived

The _________ of a firm is a relationship between inputs used and output produced by the firm.

  1. A
    Marginal product
  2. B
    Production function
  3. C
    Total product
  4. D
    Average product
Show answer
B. Production function

The production function is the technological relationship showing the maximum output a firm can obtain from each combination of inputs, typically written as \(Q = f(L, K)\). Total product is a single output level, marginal product is the change in output from one extra input unit, and average product is output per unit of an input — none of these describe the overall input–output relationship.

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Question 27archived

________ means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice.

  1. A
    Original Jurisdiction
  2. B
    Writ Jurisdiction
  3. C
    Appellate Jurisdiction
  4. D
    Advisory Jurisdiction
Show answer
D. Advisory Jurisdiction

Under Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143 of the Constitution), the President may refer any question of law or fact of public importance, or any matter involving constitutional interpretation, to the Supreme Court for its opinion. Original jurisdiction covers Centre–State disputes, writ jurisdiction enforces fundamental rights, and appellate jurisdiction hears appeals from lower courts — none involve presidential references for advice.

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Question 28archived

There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Tripura.

  1. A
    7
  2. B
    1
  3. C
    18
  4. D
    10
Show answer
B. 1

Rajya Sabha seats are allotted to states under the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution based on population. Smaller and less populous states get fewer seats. Tripura, being a small north-eastern state, has been allotted 1 Rajya Sabha seat (and 2 Lok Sabha seats). Hence the correct answer is 1.

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Question 29archived

During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Assam to grow ________.

  1. A
    Jute
  2. B
    Tea
  3. C
    Sugarcane
  4. D
    Wheat
Show answer
B. Tea

Assam's humid climate, high rainfall and hilly terrain were ideally suited for tea cultivation. The British East India Company set up the first commercial tea gardens in Assam in the 1830s and the Assam Company (1839) expanded plantations rapidly. Through land grants, the Waste Land Rules and indentured labour, cultivators were persuaded or coerced into tea work. Jute was promoted in Bengal, not Assam; sugarcane and wheat were associated with other regions. Hence the answer is Tea.

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Question 30archived

The Chola kingdom mostly ruled which region of India?

  1. A
    East
  2. B
    West
  3. C
    North
  4. D
    South
Show answer
D. South

The Chola dynasty originated in the Kaveri river valley in present-day Tamil Nadu. At their peak under Rajaraja I and Rajendra I (c. 850–1250 CE), they controlled Tamil Nadu, Kerala, parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and even Sri Lanka. This entire core territory lies in peninsular South India, distinguishing the Cholas from northern dynasties like the Mauryas or Guptas. Hence the answer is South.

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Question 31archived

In due course of time the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cut - off lake, also called a/an _________ lake.

  1. A
    ox - bow
  2. B
    oasis
  3. C
    lagoon
  4. D
    tectonic
Show answer
A. ox - bow

In mature rivers, the neck of a meander loop narrows over time due to erosion on the outer bank and deposition on the inner bank. During a flood the river cuts straight across the neck, abandoning the loop, and deposition seals it off. The crescent-shaped water body left behind resembles the bow of an ox's yoke and is therefore called an ox-bow lake. Oases occur in deserts, lagoons are coastal, and tectonic lakes form by crustal movement — none relate to meanders.

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Question 32archived

The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and __________.

  1. A
    magnesium
  2. B
    iron
  3. C
    manganese
  4. D
    sulphur
Show answer
A. magnesium

The Earth's crust is classified using the acronyms SIAL and SIMA. Continental crust (SIAL) is rich in Silicon and Aluminium, while oceanic crust (SIMA) is rich in Silicon and Magnesium. Oceanic crust is composed mainly of mafic rocks like basalt and gabbro, which are dense due to high Mg content. Hence the answer is magnesium.

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Question 33archived

Order Primata comprising monkey, gorilla and gibbon is placed in class Mammalia along with order Carnivora that includes?

  1. A
    Giraffe, Camels and Elephants
  2. B
    Crocodile, Lizard and Snake
  3. C
    Lion, Leopard and Camel
  4. D
    Tiger, Cats and Dogs
Show answer
D. Tiger, Cats and Dogs

Order Carnivora consists of mammals with sharp canines and claws adapted for a flesh diet. It includes the cat family (Felidae) — tigers, lions, leopards, domestic cats — and the dog family (Canidae) — dogs, wolves, foxes. Option 4 lists Tiger, Cats and Dogs, all of which are members of Carnivora. Camels (option 3) belong to Artiodactyla; giraffes and elephants belong to Artiodactyla and Proboscidea; crocodiles, lizards and snakes are reptiles, not mammals. Hence the answer is Tiger, Cats and Dogs.

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Question 34archived

In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of primary xylem is called __________.

  1. A
    Xylem fibres
  2. B
    Xylem parenchyma
  3. C
    Exarch
  4. D
    Endarch
Show answer
C. Exarch

In a vascular bundle, the position of the first-formed protoxylem relative to the later-formed metaxylem defines the arrangement. When protoxylem lies towards the periphery and metaxylem towards the centre, it is called exarch; this is typical of roots. The opposite arrangement (protoxylem inside, metaxylem outside) is endarch, characteristic of stems. Xylem fibres and parenchyma are tissue components, not arrangement types. Hence the answer is Exarch.

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Question 35archived

Which is the only one example of Mollusca Phylum?

  1. A
    Locust
  2. B
    Butterfly
  3. C
    Scorpion
  4. D
    Octopus
Show answer
D. Octopus

Phylum Mollusca contains soft-bodied invertebrates with a mantle and muscular foot — snails, clams, squids and octopuses. The octopus belongs to Class Cephalopoda under Mollusca. Locusts and butterflies are insects, and scorpions are arachnids — all three belong to Phylum Arthropoda (jointed legs, exoskeleton). Hence the only mollusc in the list is the Octopus.

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Question 36archived

If the speed of an object moving along a straight line keeps changing, its motion is said to be _________.

  1. A
    Uniform
  2. B
    Periodic
  3. C
    Circular
  4. D
    Non - uniform
Show answer
D. Non - uniform

An object covering equal distances in equal intervals of time along a straight line is in uniform motion. If the speed (distance per unit time) keeps changing, equal time intervals correspond to unequal distances — this is the definition of non-uniform motion. Periodic motion repeats after a fixed interval and circular motion follows a curved path; neither describes the scenario. Hence the answer is Non-uniform.

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Question 37archived

The substances which reduce friction are called _________.

  1. A
    irregularities
  2. B
    lubricants
  3. C
    adhesives
  4. D
    viscous
Show answer
B. lubricants

Friction arises because microscopic irregularities on two surfaces interlock. Lubricants — such as oil, grease and graphite — form a thin film between the surfaces that fills these irregularities and lets the surfaces slide past each other with much less resistance. Irregularities are the cause of friction, adhesives bond surfaces together (increasing resistance), and "viscous" is a property, not a class of substances. Hence the answer is lubricants.

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Question 38archived

Notepad is a text editor in which of the following operating systems?

  1. A
    Windows
  2. B
    Google Chrome
  3. C
    Mozilla Firefox
  4. D
    Macintosh
Show answer
A. Windows

Notepad is the default plain-text editor that ships built-in with Microsoft Windows, dating back to Windows 1.0 (1985). Google Chrome and Mozilla Firefox are web browsers, not operating systems. The Macintosh (macOS) ships with TextEdit, not Notepad. Hence the answer is Windows.

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Question 39archived

Magnesium oxide (MgO) + Water (H 2O) = ?

  1. A
    [Mg(OH)]
  2. B
    [Mg2(OH)]
  3. C
    [Mg(O2H)2]
  4. D
    [Mg(OH)2]
Show answer
D. [Mg(OH)2]

Magnesium oxide is a basic metal oxide; it reacts with water to form the corresponding metal hydroxide: \[\text{MgO} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{Mg(OH)}_2\] Since \(\text{Mg}^{2+}\) needs two \(\text{OH}^{-}\) ions for charge balance, the product is Mg(OH)2 (magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia).

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Question 40archived

What is the unit of calorific value?

  1. A
    kN/kg
  2. B
    kJ/kg
  3. C
    kW/sec
  4. D
    kCal/sec
Show answer
B. kJ/kg

Calorific value is the heat energy released per unit mass of fuel on complete combustion — i.e. energy / mass. The SI unit of energy is the kilojoule (kJ) and mass is measured in kilograms (kg), giving kJ/kg. kN/kg is force per mass, while kW/sec and kCal/sec involve time and represent rates of energy transfer (power), not energy per mass. Hence the answer is kJ/kg.

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Question 41archived

According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size ________ micrometres or less in diameter are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.

  1. A
    0.5
  2. B
    2.5
  3. C
    5
  4. D
    10
Show answer
B. 2.5

Particulate matter is classified by aerodynamic diameter. CPCB and WHO identify PM2.5 — particles of 2.5 micrometres or less — as the most hazardous, because they bypass the upper airway defences and penetrate deep into the alveoli, even entering the bloodstream and triggering cardiovascular and respiratory disease. PM10 causes upper-respiratory irritation but is less harmful than PM2.5. Hence the answer is 2.5.

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Question 42archived

_________ scheme launched by the Central Government is a special social security scheme which includes Pension and Life Insurance.

  1. A
    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
  2. B
    Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
  3. C
    Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana
  4. D
    Indradanush Scheme
Show answer
C. Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana

The Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana (MGPSY) was launched by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs as a voluntary social-security scheme for Indian emigrant workers with ECR-category passports. It combined pension (through NPS-Lite), life insurance cover and a return/repatriation benefit. DDU-GKY focuses on rural skill training, DUGJY on rural electrification, and Mission Indradhanush on immunisation — none provide pension plus life insurance. Hence the answer is Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana.

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Question 43archived

Who invented Space Pen?

  1. A
    Paul C. Fisher
  2. B
    Rudolf Diesel
  3. C
    Wright Brothers
  4. D
    Alexander Fleming
Show answer
A. Paul C. Fisher

The Space Pen (AG7) was invented by American inventor Paul C. Fisher in 1965. It is a pressurized ballpoint pen that writes in zero gravity, underwater, over grease, at any angle, and across extreme temperatures, and was first used on NASA's Apollo 7 mission in 1968. Rudolf Diesel invented the diesel engine; the Wright Brothers built the first powered aeroplane; Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.

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Question 44archived

Who was the 2015 Men's Rugby World Cup Runner - Up?

  1. A
    New Zealand
  2. B
    South Africa
  3. C
    Australia
  4. D
    England
Show answer
C. Australia

The 2015 Men's Rugby World Cup final was played on 31 October 2015 at Twickenham, London. New Zealand defeated Australia 34–17 to retain the title, making Australia the runner-up. South Africa and England were eliminated before the final, so they cannot be runners-up.

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Question 45archived

Group of Monuments at Hampi was built by?

  1. A
    Harihara and Bukka
  2. B
    Udayin and Shishunaga
  3. C
    Devavarman and Vainya
  4. D
    Maravarman and Sirmara
Show answer
A. Harihara and Bukka

The Group of Monuments at Hampi (a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Karnataka) marks the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336 CE by the Sangama-dynasty brothers Harihara I and Bukka I. They began the city's planning and construction, which later rulers expanded. Udayin and Shishunaga belonged to ancient Magadha; the other pairs have no connection to Hampi.

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Question 46archived

Which of the following won the Best Feature Film Award at the 64th National Film Awards held in the year 2017?

  1. A
    Rustom
  2. B
    Kaasav
  3. C
    Dangal
  4. D
    Airlift
Show answer
B. Kaasav

At the 64th National Film Awards (announced in 2017 for films of 2016), the Best Feature Film award went to the Marathi film Kaasav, directed by Sumitra Bhave and Sunil Sukthankar, for its sensitive treatment of depression and recovery. Rustom won Best Actor (Akshay Kumar) and Dangal won Best Supporting Actress (Zaira Wasim) at the same ceremony, but neither won Best Feature Film. Airlift did not feature in the top awards.

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Question 47archived

Which of the statements given below are correct? 1. The author of the novel 'Fellside' is Victor LaValle. 2. The author of the novel 'A Head Full of Ghosts' is M.R. Carey. 3. The author of the novel 'Brave New World' is Aldous Huxley.

  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    2 and 3
  3. C
    3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Show answer
C. 3 only

Statement 1 is wrong: 'Fellside' (2016) was written by M.R. Carey, not Victor LaValle. Statement 2 is wrong: 'A Head Full of Ghosts' (2015) was written by Paul Tremblay, not M.R. Carey. Statement 3 is correct: the dystopian novel 'Brave New World' (1932) was written by Aldous Huxley. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

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Question 48archived

Which county was in the first rank in the 2016 Human Development Index published by the United Nations Development Programme?

  1. A
    Norway
  2. B
    Australia
  3. C
    Germany
  4. D
    Denmark
Show answer
A. Norway

The Human Development Index (HDI), published annually by the UNDP, ranks countries on life expectancy, education, and per-capita income. In the 2016 Human Development Report, Norway topped the list with an HDI of 0.949, followed by Australia and Switzerland. Norway's high life expectancy, education attainment, and GNI per capita keep it consistently at rank 1.

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Question 49archived

Name the estuary on the border of India and Pakistan?

  1. A
    Daman Creek
  2. B
    Sir Creek
  3. C
    Karwar Creek
  4. D
    Mandovi Creek
Show answer
B. Sir Creek

Sir Creek is a 96-km tidal estuary in the marshlands of the Indus Delta and forms the disputed maritime boundary between India's Gujarat (Kutch) and Pakistan's Sindh. India favours the mid-channel (Thalweg) line, while Pakistan claims the eastern bank. Daman, Karwar, and Mandovi creeks all lie well inside India's west coast, far from the Pakistan border.

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Question 50archived

Select the correct option: Convert decimal 101 to binary

  1. A
    1101001
  2. B
    1100111
  3. C
    1101011
  4. D
    1100101
Show answer
D. 1100101

Step 1 — Repeated division by 2: \(101\div2=50\) r \(1\); \(50\div2=25\) r \(0\); \(25\div2=12\) r \(1\); \(12\div2=6\) r \(0\); \(6\div2=3\) r \(0\); \(3\div2=1\) r \(1\); \(1\div2=0\) r \(1\). Step 2 — Read remainders bottom-up: \(1100101_2\). Check: \(64+32+4+1=101\). Hence the binary form is 1100101.

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Question 51archived

Select the correct option: Convert decimal 101 to binary.

  1. A
    1101001
  2. B
    1100111
  3. C
    1101011
  4. D
    1100101
Show answer
D. 1100101

Step 1 — Repeated division by 2: \(101\div2=50\) r \(1\); \(50\div2=25\) r \(0\); \(25\div2=12\) r \(1\); \(12\div2=6\) r \(0\); \(6\div2=3\) r \(0\); \(3\div2=1\) r \(1\); \(1\div2=0\) r \(1\). Step 2 — Read remainders bottom-up: \(1100101_2\). Verification: \(64+32+4+1=101\). Hence the binary equivalent is 1100101.

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Question 52archived

A can paint a house in 42 days and B can do it in 21 days. Along with C, they can finish the job in 7 days only. C alone can do the painting job in how many days?

  1. A
    9
  2. B
    12
  3. C
    14
  4. D
    15
Show answer
C. 14

Step 1 — Combined rate of A, B, C: \[\frac{1}{42}+\frac{1}{21}+\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{7}\] Step 2 — Simplify A+B: \[\frac{1}{42}+\frac{2}{42}=\frac{3}{42}=\frac{1}{14}\] Step 3 — Solve for C: \[\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{7}-\frac{1}{14}=\frac{2-1}{14}=\frac{1}{14}\] Therefore C alone takes 14 days.

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Question 53archived

What is the area (in sq cm) of a circle whose circumference is 26.4 cm?

  1. A
    55.44
  2. B
    44.55
  3. C
    33.44
  4. D
    44.33
Show answer
A. 55.44

Step 1 — Find the radius from the circumference: \[C=2\pi r\;\Rightarrow\;r=\frac{26.4\times 7}{2\times 22}=\frac{184.8}{44}=4.2\text{ cm}\] Step 2 — Compute the area: \[A=\pi r^{2}=\frac{22}{7}\times(4.2)^{2}=\frac{22}{7}\times 17.64=22\times 2.52\] Therefore A = 55.44 sq cm.

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Question 54archived

The cost price of an article is x. It is marked up by 120%. It is sold at Rs 8800 after giving 20% discount. What is the value (in Rs) of x?

  1. A
    7680
  2. B
    6000
  3. C
    6680
  4. D
    5000
Show answer
D. 5000

Step 1 — Marked price after 120% markup: \[MP=x+1.20x=2.20x\] Step 2 — Selling price after 20% discount on MP: \[SP=0.80\times 2.20x=1.76x\] Step 3 — Solve for x: \[1.76x=8800\;\Rightarrow\;x=\frac{8800}{1.76}=5000\] Therefore x = Rs 5000.

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Question 55archived

A bag has Rs 43 in the form of 5-rupee, 50-paise and 10-paise coins in the ratio of 1 : 5 : 11. What is the total number of 50-paise coins?

  1. A
    5
  2. B
    25
  3. C
    50
  4. D
    40
Show answer
B. 25

Step 1 — Let the coin counts be \(x,5x,11x\) for the 5-rupee, 50-paise and 10-paise coins respectively. Step 2 — Convert total to paise: Rs 43 = 4300 paise. Step 3 — Value equation: \[500x+50(5x)+10(11x)=4300\] \[500x+250x+110x=860x=4300\;\Rightarrow\;x=5\] Number of 50-paise coins \(=5x=25\). Therefore 25.

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Question 56archived

In the first 45 overs of a 50 over innings, the run rate was 5.8 runs per over. What is the required run rate in the remaining overs to reach the target of 295 runs?

  1. A
    6.9
  2. B
    6.8
  3. C
    6.7
  4. D
    6.6
Show answer
B. 6.8

Step 1 — Runs scored in 45 overs: \[5.8\times 45=261\text{ runs}\] Step 2 — Runs still required: \(295-261=34\) in \(50-45=5\) overs. Step 3 — Required run rate: \[\frac{34}{5}=6.8\text{ runs/over}\] Therefore 6.8.

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Question 57archived

A milkman buys milk at Rs. 24 per litre. He adds 1/5 of water to it and sells the mixture at Rs. 32 per litre. What will be his gain (in %)?

  1. A
    50
  2. B
    40
  3. C
    30
  4. D
    60
Show answer
D. 60

Step 1 — Assume 5 L of pure milk. Cost \(=5\times 24=\) Rs 120. Step 2 — Add water: \(\tfrac{1}{5}\times 5=1\) L, giving 6 L of mixture (water is free). Step 3 — Selling price: \(6\times 32=\) Rs 192. Step 4 — Gain %: \[\frac{192-120}{120}\times 100=\frac{72}{120}\times 100=60\%\] Therefore the gain is 60%.

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Question 58archived

When a number is increased by 105, it becomes 135% of itself. What is the number?

  1. A
    450
  2. B
    300
  3. C
    600
  4. D
    400
Show answer
B. 300

Let the number be \(x\). Increased by 105 it equals 135% of itself: \[x + 105 = 1.35x\] \[0.35x = 105 \implies x = \dfrac{105}{0.35} = 300\] Therefore the number is 300. Check: \(300 + 105 = 405 = 1.35 \times 300\).

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Question 59archived

Two cyclists P and Q cycle at 20 km/hr and 16 km/hr towards each other respectively. What was the distance (in kms) between them when they started if they met after 40 minutes?

  1. A
    36
  2. B
    30
  3. C
    25
  4. D
    24
Show answer
D. 24

Moving towards each other, the cyclists close the gap at their combined speed: \[\text{Relative speed} = 20 + 16 = 36 \text{ km/hr}\] Time of meeting = 40 minutes = \(\dfrac{2}{3}\) hr. The initial separation equals the combined distance covered: \[\text{Distance} = 36 \times \dfrac{2}{3} = 24 \text{ km}\] Therefore the starting distance was 24 km.

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Question 60archived

If the amount received at 10% per annum Compound interest after 3 yrs is Rs. 19965, then what will have been the principal (in Rs) amount?

  1. A
    16000
  2. B
    15000
  3. C
    17000
  4. D
    18000
Show answer
B. 15000

Using the compound-interest amount formula with R = 10%, n = 3: \[A = P\left(1 + \dfrac{R}{100}\right)^n \implies 19965 = P(1.1)^3\] \[(1.1)^3 = 1.331\] \[P = \dfrac{19965}{1.331} = 15000\] Therefore the principal was Rs. 15000.

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Question 61archived

If 8x/3 + [7(5 - 2x/3)]/2 = 1/2, then what is the value of x?

  1. A
    -17
  2. B
    51
  3. C
    -51
  4. D
    17
Show answer
C. -51

Expand the bracket and combine terms: \[\dfrac{8x}{3} + \dfrac{7\left(5 - \tfrac{2x}{3}\right)}{2} = \dfrac{1}{2}\] \[\dfrac{8x}{3} + \dfrac{35}{2} - \dfrac{7x}{3} = \dfrac{1}{2}\] Combine the \(x\)-terms and move the constant: \[\dfrac{x}{3} = \dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{35}{2} = -17\] \[x = -51\] Therefore x = -51.

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Question 62archived

If a - b = -1 and ab = 6, then what is the value of a 3 - b 3?

  1. A
    33
  2. B
    -19
  3. C
    18
  4. D
    35
Show answer
B. -19

Use the identity \(a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)(a^2 + ab + b^2)\). First find \(a^2 + b^2\) from \((a-b)^2 = a^2 - 2ab + b^2\): \[a^2 + b^2 = (a-b)^2 + 2ab = (-1)^2 + 2(6) = 13\] So \(a^2 + ab + b^2 = 13 + 6 = 19\), giving: \[a^3 - b^3 = (-1)(19) = -19\] Therefore the value is -19.

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Question 63archived

The sum of a fraction and 3 times its reciprocal is 31/6. What is the fraction?

  1. A
    2/9
  2. B
    9/2
  3. C
    5/4
  4. D
    4/5
Show answer
B. 9/2

Let the fraction be \(f\). Then \(f + \dfrac{3}{f} = \dfrac{31}{6}\). Multiply through by \(6f\): \[6f^2 - 31f + 18 = 0\] Factor (split \(-31f\) as \(-27f - 4f\)): \[(2f - 9)(3f - 2) = 0 \implies f = \dfrac{9}{2} \text{ or } \dfrac{2}{3}\] Only 9/2 appears in the options. Check: \(\dfrac{9}{2} + 3 \cdot \dfrac{2}{9} = \dfrac{27}{6} + \dfrac{4}{6} = \dfrac{31}{6}\).

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Question 64archived

The 2 nd and 8 th term of an arithmetic progression are 17 and -1 respectively. What is the 14 th term?

  1. A
    -22
  2. B
    -25
  3. C
    -19
  4. D
    -18
Show answer
C. -19

For an AP, \(a_n = a_1 + (n-1)d\). From the given terms: \[a_2 = a_1 + d = 17, \quad a_8 = a_1 + 7d = -1\] Subtracting: \[6d = -18 \implies d = -3, \quad a_1 = 20\] Then: \[a_{14} = 20 + 13(-3) = -19\] Therefore the 14th term is -19.

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Question 65archived

What is the reflection of the point (2, 3) in the line y = 4?

  1. A
    (2, 5)
  2. B
    (2, -5)
  3. C
    (-2, -5)
  4. D
    (-2, 5)
Show answer
A. (2, 5)

Reflecting \((x, y)\) in the horizontal line \(y = k\) preserves \(x\) and maps \(y \to 2k - y\). With \((x, y) = (2, 3)\) and \(k = 4\): \[(2,\; 2(4) - 3) = (2, 5)\] Therefore the reflected point is (2, 5).

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Question 66archived

Point P (-2, 5) is the midpoint of segment AB. Co-ordinates of A are (-5, y) and B are (x, 3). What is the value of x?

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    -1
  3. C
    2
  4. D
    -2
Show answer
A. 1

Since P is the midpoint of AB, its x-coordinate is the average of the x-coordinates of A and B: \[-2 = \dfrac{-5 + x}{2}\] \[-4 = -5 + x \implies x = 1\] Therefore x = 1.

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Question 67archived

What is the equation of a line having a slope -1/3 and y-intercept equal to 6?

  1. A
    x + 3y = 18
  2. B
    x - 3y = 6
  3. C
    x + 3y = -18
  4. D
    x - 3y = -6
Show answer
A. x + 3y = 18

Slope-intercept form: \(y = mx + c\) with \(m = -\tfrac{1}{3}\) and \(c = 6\): \[y = -\dfrac{x}{3} + 6\] Multiply through by 3 and rearrange: \[3y = -x + 18 \implies x + 3y = 18\] Therefore the equation is x + 3y = 18.

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Question 68archived

ΔABC is right angled at B. BD is its altitude. AD = 4 cm and DC = 12 cm. What is the value of AB (in cm)?

  1. A
    9
  2. B
    10
  3. C
    6
  4. D
    8
Show answer
D. 8

When BD is the altitude from the right angle to the hypotenuse, the geometric-mean (leg) relation gives \(AB^2 = AD \times AC\). Here \(AC = AD + DC = 4 + 12 = 16\) cm, so: \[AB^2 = 4 \times 16 = 64 \implies AB = 8 \text{ cm}\] Therefore AB = 8 cm.

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Question 69archived

What is the value of Sin60° + (1/2)Cosec45°?

  1. A
    (√3 + 2)/2
  2. B
    (√3 + √2)/√2
  3. C
    (√3 + 2)/√2
  4. D
    (√3 + √2)/2
Show answer
D. (√3 + √2)/2

Using standard values \(\sin 60^\circ = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and \(\operatorname{cosec} 45^\circ = \sqrt{2}\): \[\sin 60^\circ + \dfrac{1}{2}\operatorname{cosec} 45^\circ = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2} + \dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2} = \dfrac{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}}{2}\] Therefore the value is \(\dfrac{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}}{2}\).

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Question 70archived

ΔLMN is right angled at M. If ∠N = 45°. What is the length (in cm) of MN, if NL = 6√2 cm?

  1. A
    3
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    2
  4. D
    6
Show answer
D. 6

Since \(\angle M = 90^\circ\) and \(\angle N = 45^\circ\), the third angle \(\angle L = 45^\circ\), making LMN a 45-45-90 triangle. The legs are equal and the hypotenuse equals \(\text{leg} \times \sqrt{2}\). With hypotenuse \(NL = 6\sqrt{2}\): \[MN \cdot \sqrt{2} = 6\sqrt{2} \implies MN = 6 \text{ cm}\] Therefore MN = 6 cm.

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Question 71archived

If Cos θ = 35/37, then what is the value of Cosec θ?

  1. A
    37/12
  2. B
    33/12
  3. C
    35/12
  4. D
    12/35
Show answer
A. 37/12

If \(\cos\theta = \dfrac{35}{37}\), treat the adjacent side as 35 and hypotenuse as 37. By the Pythagorean theorem the opposite side is: \[\sqrt{37^2 - 35^2} = \sqrt{1369 - 1225} = \sqrt{144} = 12\] Then \(\sin\theta = \dfrac{12}{37}\), so: \[\operatorname{cosec}\theta = \dfrac{1}{\sin\theta} = \dfrac{37}{12}\] Therefore the value is 37/12.

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Question 72archived

In how many years were the net exports more than that of the previous year?

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    4
  4. D
    2
Show answer
D. 2

Changes in net exports: ⇒ 2011: 0 ⇒ 2012: +10 ⇒ 2013: -30 ⇒ 2014: -10 ⇒ 2015: +50 ⇒ 2016: 0 Here, 2 years give a positive change

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Question 73archived

If the exports in 2013 were 90 million USD then what was the imports (in million USD)?

  1. A
    80
  2. B
    110
  3. C
    70
  4. D
    100
Show answer
D. 100

Given: exports in 2013 = 90 million USD Since, net exports = exports - imports In 2013, net exports = -10 million USD ⇒ -10 = 90 - imports ∴ Imports = 90 + 10 = 100 million USD

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Question 74archived

What is the ratio of net exports in year 2016 to that in year 2012?

  1. A
    2 : 3
  2. B
    3 : 1
  3. C
    1 : 3
  4. D
    3 : 2
Show answer
D. 3 : 2

net exports in year 2016 = 30 million USD Net exports in year 2012 = 20 million USD ∴ Required ratio = 30/20 = 3 : 2

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Question 75archived

Cumulative net exports (in million USD) from the beginning of 2012 to the end of 2015 was?

  1. A
    80
  2. B
    40
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    60
Show answer
C. 20

These are the net exports for following years: In 2012: 20 million USD In 2013: -10 million USD In 2014: -20 million USD In 2015: 30 million USD ∴ Cumulative net exports (in million USD) from the beginning of 2012 to the end of 2015 = 20 + (-10) + (-20) + 30 = 20

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Question 76archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. He was going to (1)/ like the clothes, she (2)/ bought of the trip. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
C. 3

Part (3) contains the error: "bought of the trip" uses the wrong preposition. "Of" cannot link the verb bought to the purpose the trip. The correct preposition is for (purpose) — "bought for the trip" — or possibly on/during if the meaning is time. Parts (1) and (2) are grammatically fine. Hence the error lies in part (3).

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Question 77archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. "You didn't answer my (1)/ question," he said, (2)/ stepping to her. (3)/No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
C. 3

The error lies in part (3). The phrase "stepping to her" uses the wrong preposition. To indicate movement in the direction of a person, English idiomatically uses "towards" (or "up to"). "To" with "step" typically signals stepping onto something (e.g., "step to the plate") or in rhythm. The corrected version reads: "...he said, stepping towards her." Parts (1) and (2) are grammatically and punctually sound, so the answer is (3).

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Question 78archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. After missing four days of school due to a _________ of flu, Babita struggled to make up for her missing work.

  1. A
    Bout
  2. B
    About
  3. C
    Array
  4. D
    Amount
Show answer
A. Bout

The collocation "a bout of flu" is the standard idiom for a short episode of illness (also: a bout of coughing, a bout of malaria). This fits Babita's four-day absence perfectly. "About" is a preposition/adverb and is ungrammatical after the article "a". "Array" denotes a wide range or display, not a single illness. "Amount" measures quantity, but flu is not measured in amounts. Hence Bout.

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Question 79archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The company refunded the customer's money in _______________ with the laws.

  1. A
    According
  2. B
    Accordingly
  3. C
    Accordance
  4. D
    Accord
Show answer
C. Accordance

The fixed prepositional idiom is "in accordance with", meaning in conformity with rules, laws, or standards. It correctly conveys that the refund complied with legal requirements. "According" pairs with "to" ("according to"), not "in...with". "Accordingly" is an adverb that modifies clauses, not a noun for this slot. "Accord" exists in "in accord with" (agreement in opinion) but is not the standard phrase for legal compliance. Hence Accordance.

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Question 80archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Affectionate

  1. A
    Neglectful
  2. B
    Aloof
  3. C
    Sympathetic
  4. D
    Suppressive
Show answer
C. Sympathetic

"Affectionate" means showing warmth, fondness, or caring feelings towards others. Among the options, Sympathetic is the closest in meaning — it denotes a caring, understanding attitude toward another's feelings. "Neglectful" (failing to care) and "Aloof" (cold, distant) are antonyms. "Suppressive" (subduing/restraining) is unrelated to emotional warmth. Hence Sympathetic.

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Question 81archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Consequent

  1. A
    Inception
  2. B
    Ensuing
  3. C
    Dawn
  4. D
    Creation
Show answer
B. Ensuing

"Consequent" means following as a result of something else. Ensuing means happening afterwards or as a consequence — a direct synonym. "Inception", "Dawn", and "Creation" all denote a beginning or origin, which is the opposite idea — they describe what starts something, not what follows from it. Hence Ensuing.

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Question 82archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Parsimonious

  1. A
    Avaricious
  2. B
    Chintzy
  3. C
    Frugal
  4. D
    Lavish
Show answer
D. Lavish

"Parsimonious" means extremely unwilling to spend money — stingy. Its opposite is Lavish, which means spending or giving freely and extravagantly. "Avaricious" (greedy for wealth), "Chintzy" (stingy/cheap), and "Frugal" (economical) are all synonyms or close relatives of parsimonious, not antonyms. Hence Lavish.

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Question 83archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. To filch

  1. A
    To smuggle
  2. B
    To appropriate
  3. C
    To encroach
  4. D
    To give back
Show answer
D. To give back

"To filch" means to steal, especially something of small value. The direct opposite action — returning what was taken — is to give back. "To smuggle" (move goods illegally), "to appropriate" (take for one's own use), and "to encroach" (intrude on another's space/rights) all involve taking or wrongful possession, making them synonyms of filch, not antonyms. Hence To give back.

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Question 84archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. In black and white

  1. A
    Be color blind
  2. B
    Not able to appreciate the finer things in life
  3. C
    Be excessively prejudiced against something or someone
  4. D
    A clear choice that causes no confusion
Show answer
D. A clear choice that causes no confusion

The idiom "in black and white" means presented with stark clarity — without ambiguity or grey areas. Applied to a decision, it describes a clear choice that causes no confusion. "Be colour blind" is a literal misreading. "Not able to appreciate the finer things" is unrelated. "Excessively prejudiced" reflects rigid "black-and-white thinking", not the idiom's standard meaning. Hence option (4).

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Question 85archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Out of date

  1. A
    Not have time; very busy
  2. B
    Not stick to the schedule
  3. C
    Fail to find a partner
  4. D
    Old-fashioned
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D. Old-fashioned

"Out of date" means no longer current, modern, or fashionable — i.e., Old-fashioned. It is used for outdated technology, styles, or information. "Not have time; very busy", "Not stick to the schedule", and "Fail to find a partner" all describe unrelated situations involving time or relationships, none of which capture obsolescence. Hence Old-fashioned.

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Question 86archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". There's nothing wrong with (having to) a different opinion.

  1. A
    Has to
  2. B
    Have to
  3. C
    Having
  4. D
    No improvement
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C. Having

The preposition "with" must be followed by a noun or gerund (-ing form acting as a noun). "Having to" expresses obligation and does not fit this slot. Replacing it with Having gives the gerund phrase "having a different opinion", which correctly follows "with": "There's nothing wrong with having a different opinion." "Has to" and "Have to" are finite obligation forms that cannot follow a preposition, and the original is faulty, so "No improvement" is wrong. Hence Having.

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Question 87archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". It has (being) too dangerous for too many people.

  1. A
    To be
  2. B
    Become
  3. C
    Be
  4. D
    No improvement
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B. Become

The auxiliary "has" requires a past participle to form the present perfect tense. "Being" is a present participle/gerund, not a past participle, so the original is ungrammatical. Substituting Become (whose past participle is also "become") gives "It has become too dangerous for too many people" — a correct present perfect indicating a change of state. "To be" alters the meaning to obligation ("has to be"); "Be" is the bare infinitive and ungrammatical after "has". Hence Become.

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Question 88archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Conformity to facts

  1. A
    Veracity
  2. B
    Deceit
  3. C
    Hypothesis
  4. D
    Theory
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A. Veracity

Veracity means truthfulness or conformity to facts — a direct one-word substitute for the given phrase. "Deceit" is the opposite (misleading or concealing the truth). "Hypothesis" is a tentative proposition awaiting verification. "Theory" is an explanatory framework, not the quality of being factual. Hence Veracity.

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Question 89archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Search for and collect anything usable from discarded waste

  1. A
    Scavenge
  2. B
    Disperse
  3. C
    Dissipate
  4. D
    Scatter
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A. Scavenge

To scavenge means to search through discarded waste or remains and collect anything usable — exactly the action described. "Disperse" (scatter widely), "Dissipate" (fade away/spread thin), and "Scatter" (throw about randomly) all denote spreading things out, the opposite of gathering. Hence Scavenge.

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Question 90archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    Extrution
  2. B
    Extrusion
  3. C
    Extrosion
  4. D
    Extrotion
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B. Extrusion

The correctly spelt word is Extrusion — the noun form of "extrude" (to force or push out), commonly used in manufacturing for shaping material through a die. The correct ending is "-sion" (as in extrude → extrusion, parallel to conclude → conclusion). "Extrution", "Extrosion", and "Extrotion" all use non-standard suffixes and are misspellings. Hence Extrusion.

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Question 91archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. A
    Reterate
  2. B
    Reiterate
  3. C
    Reiterete
  4. D
    Reterete
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B. Reiterate

The correctly spelt word is Reiterate, meaning to say or do something again for emphasis. It is formed from the prefix "re-" (again) plus the verb "iterate" (to repeat). "Reterate" and "Reterete" drop the essential "i" of "iterate". "Reiterete" and "Reterete" use the non-standard ending "-ete" instead of "-ate". Hence Reiterate.

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Question 92archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Then the gigantic figure X-alarming spectacle Y-slipped off the tree and stood Z-up before us, a truly

  1. A
    YZX
  2. B
    XZY
  3. C
    XYZ
  4. D
    ZYX
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A. YZX

Read the fragments together with the opener "Then the gigantic figure". Y ("slipped off the tree and stood") supplies the verb the subject needs. Z ("up before us, a truly") completes the action and introduces a description. X ("alarming spectacle") finishes the noun phrase "a truly alarming spectacle". Full sentence: "Then the gigantic figure slipped off the tree and stood up before us, a truly alarming spectacle." Hence the order is YZX.

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Question 93archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. We admit as much X-that it is related to the body Y-when we say that the mind Z-is immaterial, and yet hold

  1. A
    ZXY
  2. B
    ZYX
  3. C
    YZX
  4. D
    XYZ
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C. YZX

The opener "We admit as much" needs a "when" clause to specify the admission. Y ("when we say that the mind") supplies that clause. Z ("is immaterial, and yet hold") completes the predicate about the mind and sets up a contrast with "and yet hold". X ("that it is related to the body") delivers the object of "hold". Full sentence: "We admit as much when we say that the mind is immaterial, and yet hold that it is related to the body." Hence the order is YZX.

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Question 94archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. No one responded to my online ad.

  1. A
    My online ad was not responded to by anyone.
  2. B
    My online ad is not responded to by anyone.
  3. C
    Response by no one was given to my online ad.
  4. D
    Response by no one is given to my online ad.
Show answer
A. My online ad was not responded to by anyone.

The active sentence is in the simple past, so the passive must also be simple past: object + was/were + past participle. The object "my online ad" becomes the new subject, and "responded" is followed by "to" because "respond to" is a prepositional verb. "No one" becomes "not ... by anyone". This gives "My online ad was not responded to by anyone". Option 2 wrongly uses present "is"; options 3 and 4 abandon the verb "respond" and use awkward noun constructions.

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Question 95archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. Ajay said to my sister, "It's wonderful!"

  1. A
    Ajay tells my sister that it's wonderful.
  2. B
    Ajay tells to my sister that it was wonderful.
  3. C
    Ajay told my sister that it was wonderful.
  4. D
    Ajay told to my sister that it's being wonderful.
Show answer
C. Ajay told my sister that it was wonderful.

Three changes are needed for indirect speech with a past reporting verb: "said to" + object becomes "told" + object (no "to"), the quotation is linked by "that", and the present-tense reported verb shifts to past — "It's (is) wonderful" becomes "it was wonderful". This yields "Ajay told my sister that it was wonderful." Options 1 and 2 wrongly keep present "tells"; options 2 and 4 wrongly insert "to" after the reporting verb.

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Question 96archived

mental images and stereotypes; ______________ the jargon of 'opening up,

  1. A
    Forgetful
  2. B
    Forget
  3. C
    Forgot
  4. D
    Forgotten
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B. Forget

The clause before the semicolon — "dispel all the mental images and stereotypes" — is an imperative. The parallel clause after the semicolon must also start with an imperative verb directed at "the jargon". The imperative form is the base verb, so "Forget" fits: "Forget the jargon of 'opening up,' 'flow,' 'nidra,' and 'balance'." "Forgetful" is an adjective, "Forgot" is past tense, and "Forgotten" is a past participle — none can head an imperative clause.

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Question 97archived

Focus _______ what you need for your body.

  1. A
    Of
  2. B
    For
  3. C
    Off
  4. D
    On
Show answer
D. On

The verb "focus" takes the preposition "on" when naming the target of attention — "focus on something" is the fixed collocation. "Focus of" pairs with the noun "focus", not the verb; "focus for" is non-idiomatic; "focus off" would mean diverting attention away, which contradicts the sentence's meaning. Hence: "Focus on what you need for your body."

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Question 98archived

___________ you aren't sure, begin here — with just one asana.

  1. A
    For
  2. B
    But
  3. C
    If
  4. D
    Whether
Show answer
C. If

The blank introduces a conditional clause — the advice "begin here with just one asana" applies only when the reader is unsure. "If" is the standard marker of such a condition, giving "If you aren't sure, begin here — with just one asana." "For" cannot open a conditional clause; "But" signals contrast, not condition; "Whether" introduces alternatives (whether X or Y) and does not fit a single uncertainty.

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Question 99archived

It's one of the basic ones ___________ I lead every class with.

  1. A
    This
  2. B
    These
  3. C
    Those
  4. D
    That
Show answer
D. That

The blank needs a relative pronoun linking "one of the basic ones" to the defining clause "I lead every class with". "That" functions as a relative pronoun here, giving "one of the basic ones that I lead every class with." "This", "These" and "Those" are demonstratives, not relative pronouns; "These" and "Those" are also plural and would not agree with the singular "one".

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Question 100archived

stand-alone piece ____________ begin with it when you're at the gym.

  1. A
    Or
  2. B
    Nor
  3. C
    Either
  4. D
    Neither
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A. Or

Since the sentence gives a choice between two possible options, the most appropriate option would be 'or'.

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