Question 1archived
In a row of people Manu is 7th from bottom end of row. Shrey is 10 ranks above Manu. If Shrey is 8th from top end, then how many people are there in this row?
- A
25
- B
26
- C
24
- D
23
Show answer
C. 24Step 1 — Shrey's position from the bottom: Manu is 7th from the bottom; Shrey is 10 ranks above Manu, so Shrey is \(7+10=17\)th from the bottom.
Step 2 — Total using Shrey's two ranks: Shrey is 8th from the top and 17th from the bottom.
\[\text{Total}=8+17-1=24\]
Therefore there are 24 people in the row.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 2archived
If "α" denotes "subtracted from", "β" denotes "multiplied by", "θ" denotes "added to" and "δ" denotes "divided by", then 10 θ 8 β 4 δ 8 α 9 = ?
- A
7
- B
5
- C
9
- D
11
Show answer
B. 5Substitute the symbols: \(\theta=+\), \(\beta=\times\), \(\delta=\div\), \(\alpha=-\). The expression becomes:
\[10+8\times 4\div 8-9\]
Apply BODMAS (× and ÷ first, left to right):
\[10+32\div 8-9=10+4-9=5\]
Therefore the answer is 5.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 3archived
From the given figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

- A
Option A (shown in image)
- B
Option B (shown in image)
- C
Option C (shown in image)
- D
Option D (shown in image)
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)On close observation, we find the question fig. is embedded in fig. (1).
Hence, the answer is option 1.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 4archived
Seven years ago, the age of Sahil was equal to the present age of Nihal. Sum of Sahil's age 5 year ago and Nihal's age 6 years later is 58 years. If Ruchi is 4 years elder to Sahil, then what will be Ruchi's age (in years) after 10 years?
- A
38
- B
46
- C
42
- D
36
Show answer
B. 46Step 1 — Form equations: Let Sahil's and Nihal's present ages be \(S\) and \(N\). Then \(S-7=N\) and \((S-5)+(N+6)=58\), i.e. \(S+N=57\).
Step 2 — Solve: Substituting \(N=S-7\):
\[2S-7=57\implies S=32\]
Step 3 — Ruchi's age in 10 years: Ruchi is 4 years older than Sahil, so Ruchi now is \(32+4=36\). After 10 years she will be \(36+10=46\).
Therefore Ruchi's age after 10 years is 46.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 5archived
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Banana : Fruit :: Ginger : ?
- A
Root
- B
Fruit
- C
Flower
- D
Stem
Show answer
D. StemThe relationship is category: a banana is botanically a fruit. Ginger is the underground rhizome of the plant — a modified stem, not a root, since it has nodes, internodes and buds.
Hence Ginger : Stem.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 6archived
In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
- A
20
- B
21
- C
22
- D
24
Show answer
B. 21The differences between consecutive terms form a simple ascending pattern: \(3-1=2,\ 6-3=3,\ 10-6=4,\ 15-10=5\). So the next difference is 6.
\[15+6=21\]
(These are triangular numbers: \(T_n=\tfrac{n(n+1)}{2}\); \(T_6=21\).) Hence the missing number is 21.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 7archived
In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
Representation
- A
Paint
- B
Senator
- C
Trees
- D
Strict
Show answer
D. StrictThe letters available in REPRESENTATION are R, E, P, S, N, T, A, I, O (no C).
Paint (P, A, I, N, T), Senator (S, E, N, A, T, O, R) and Trees (T, R, E, E, S) can all be formed from these letters. Strict requires the letter C, which does not occur in REPRESENTATION.
Hence Strict cannot be formed.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 8archived
If 9 2 A 4 2 B 3 2 = 56 and 7 2 A 2 2 B 1 2 = 44, then 11 2 A 5 2 B 7 2 = ?
- A
29
- B
32
- C
47
- D
24
Show answer
C. 47The small "2" indicates squaring. From \(7^2\,A\,2^2\,B\,1^2=49-4-1=44\) and \(9^2\,A\,4^2\,B\,3^2=81-16-9=56\), both A and B mean subtraction.
Apply to the third expression:
\[11^2-5^2-7^2=121-25-49=47\]
Therefore the value is 47.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 9archived
In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. Some girls are clever.
II. All clever are hardworking.
Conclusions:
I. Some girls are not hardworking.
II. Some girls are hardworking.
III. Some hardworking are not girls.
- A
Only conclusion (I) and (II) follow.
- B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
- C
Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.
- D
All conclusions follow.
Show answer
B. Only conclusion (II) follows.From "Some girls are clever" + "All clever are hardworking", those clever girls must also be hardworking. So Conclusion II (Some girls are hardworking) follows.
Conclusion I (Some girls are not hardworking) is not guaranteed — the statements allow that all girls could be hardworking. Conclusion III (Some hardworking are not girls) is also not guaranteed — the statements do not rule out that every hardworking person is a girl.
Hence only Conclusion II follows.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 10archived
In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
JPSW : LQUX :: MRPT : ?
- A
OTVG
- B
OGTU
- C
OSRU
- D
OPQR
Show answer
C. OSRUCompare positions of letters in JPSW → LQUX: J(10)→L(12) is +2; P(16)→Q(17) is +1; S(19)→U(21) is +2; W(23)→X(24) is +1. The shift pattern is +2, +1, +2, +1.
Apply to MRPT: M(13)+2 = O(15); R(18)+1 = S(19); P(16)+2 = R(18); T(20)+1 = U(21).
Hence the answer is OSRU.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 11archived
In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
- A
Trees
- B
Leaves
- C
Flower
- D
Stem
Show answer
A. TreesLeaves, Flower and Stem are all parts of a plant. A tree, however, is the whole plant that contains these parts.
Hence the odd one out is Trees.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 12archived
In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
65 : 82 :: 145 : ?
- A
165
- B
168
- C
169
- D
170
Show answer
D. 170Notice \(65=8^2+1\) and \(82=9^2+1\). So the rule is: if the first number is \(n^2+1\), the second is \((n+1)^2+1\).
For 145: \(145=12^2+1\), so the partner is \(13^2+1=169+1=170\).
Hence the answer is 170.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 13archived
From the given options, which answer figure can be formed by folding the figure given in the question?

- A
Option A (shown in image)
- B
Option B (shown in image)
- C
Option C (shown in image)
- D
Option D (shown in image)
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)From the unfolded net, the opposite-face pairs on the cube are: * opposite #, % opposite >, and $ opposite I.
Figures (2), (3) and (4) each show one of these opposite pairs on adjacent faces, which is impossible. Only figure (1) keeps every opposite pair non-adjacent.
Therefore the cube formed is option (1).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 14archived
How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

- A
3
- B
4
- C
7
- D
6
Show answer
C. 7We shall label the figure as shown below:
Quadrilaterals are: 1. ABCD, 2. ADEB, 3. BDGE, 4. ABEC, 5. BDGF. 6. DGFC and 7. CEBH
Therefore, total 7 Quadrilaterals as there in the given figure.
Hence, the answer is 7.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 15archived
In a certain code language, "TROUPE" is written as "GILFKV" and "ERUPTION" is written as "VIFKGRLM". How is "GENIUS" written in that code language?
- A
TVMRFH
- B
TVMRGH
- C
VIKRGH
- D
TUVHRH
Show answer
A. TVMRFHThe code is the Atbash cipher: each letter maps to its mirror image in the alphabet, i.e. position \(p\) becomes position \(27-p\). Verified with T↔G (20↔7), R↔I (18↔9), etc.
Apply to GENIUS: G(7)→T(20), E(5)→V(22), N(14)→M(13), I(9)→R(18), U(21)→F(6), S(19)→H(8).
Hence GENIUS is coded as TVMRFH.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 16archived
In the given figure, how many bottles are not brown?

- A
1, 26, 31
- B
13, 26 1
- C
1, 42, 26
- D
42, 13, 1
Show answer
A. 1, 26, 31Clearly, 1, 26, 31 represent the group of bottles which are not brown.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 17archived
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Waste
2. Wrong
3. Witty
4. Worcester
5. Warlike
- A
51342
- B
13452
- C
51324
- D
15342
Show answer
A. 51342All five words begin with W; order by the second letter (a, i, o, r). Among the two 'Wa' words, compare third letters: Warlike vs Waste — 'r' precedes 's', so Warlike comes before Waste.
Dictionary order: Warlike (5), Waste (1), Witty (3), Worcester (4), Wrong (2).
Hence the sequence is 5, 1, 3, 4, 2.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 18archived
Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

- A
Option A (shown in image)
- B
Option B (shown in image)
- C
Option C (shown in image)
- D
Option D (shown in image)
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)Clearly, fig. (1) will be complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figures
Hence, answer Is (1).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 19archived
In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
1
7
6
56
1
4
8
45
2
3
6
?
- A
30
- B
35
- C
46
- D
41
Show answer
B. 35The rule for each row: \((\text{col 1}+\text{col 2})\times\text{col 3}+(\text{col 1}+\text{col 2})\).
Row 1: \((1+7)\times 6+(1+7)=48+8=56\).
Row 2: \((1+4)\times 8+(1+4)=40+5=45\).
Row 3: \((2+3)\times 6+(2+3)=30+5=35\).
Hence the missing number is 35.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 20archived
A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

- A
Option A (shown in image)
- B
Option B (shown in image)
- C
Option C (shown in image)
- D
Option D (shown in image)
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)Clearly, when the sheet is unfolded, we get two circles.
Hence, fig (1) is the answer.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 21archived
If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

- A
Option A (shown in image)
- B
Option B (shown in image)
- C
Option C (shown in image)
- D
Option D (shown in image)
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)Clearly, (1) is the answer figure is the right image of the question figure.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 22archived
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
A, C, F, H, K, ?
- A
M
- B
N
- C
L
- D
O
Show answer
A. MThe differences between consecutive letter positions alternate +2, +3, +2, +3, +2.
A \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) C \(\xrightarrow{+3}\) F \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) H \(\xrightarrow{+3}\) K \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) ?
K (11) + 2 = 13 = M.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 23archived
In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
- A
49 - 64
- B
576 - 729
- C
441 - 484
- D
100 - 121
Show answer
B. 576 - 729Three pairs are squares of consecutive integers: \(49\text{-}64=7^2\text{-}8^2\), \(441\text{-}484=21^2\text{-}22^2\), \(100\text{-}121=10^2\text{-}11^2\).
However, \(576\text{-}729=24^2\text{-}27^2\) — the bases differ by 3, not 1.
Hence 576 - 729 is the odd pair.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 24archived
A word is represented by only one set of numbers as gives in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix - I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix - II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘E’ can be represented by 21, 44 etc. and ‘T’ can be represented by 65, 87 etc. similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘FATE’.
Matrix - IMatrix - II
0123456789
0AUOEI5BFKNT
1EIAUO6TBFKN
2OEIAU7NTBFK
3UOEIA8KNTBF
4IAUOE9FKNTB
- A
56, 00, 87, 11
- B
96, 41, 59, 44
- C
88, 12, 76, 33
- D
78, 34, 98, 21
Show answer
D. 78, 34, 98, 21Encoding is row then column. Decoding each pair in option 4:
78 → Matrix II, row 7 col 8 = F.
34 → Matrix I, row 3 col 4 = A.
98 → Matrix II, row 9 col 8 = T.
21 → Matrix I, row 2 col 1 = E.
All four pairs decode to F-A-T-E, so the answer is 78, 34, 98, 21. (The other options each contain at least one mismatched code, e.g. 11 → I, 96 → K, 88 → B.)
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 25archived
In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
- A
CEF
- B
LNO
- C
RTU
- D
GIK
Show answer
D. GIKConvert each group to alphabet positions and check the gaps.
CEF: 3, 5, 6 → gaps +2, +1. LNO: 12, 14, 15 → +2, +1. RTU: 18, 20, 21 → +2, +1. GIK: 7, 9, 11 → +2, +2.
GIK breaks the +2, +1 pattern (it is +2, +2), so GIK is the odd group.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 26archived
Which of the following is a chemical formula of quicklime?
- A
Ca2O
- B
Ca2CO3
- C
CaO2
- D
CaO
Show answer
D. CaOQuicklime is the common name for calcium oxide, formula \(\text{CaO}\). It is produced by calcining limestone: \(\text{CaCO}_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{CaO}+\text{CO}_2\).
\(\text{Ca}_2\text{CO}_3\) is not a real compound (calcium carbonate is \(\text{CaCO}_3\)), and \(\text{CaO}_2\) is calcium peroxide.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 27archived
Who is the author of ‘The Windfall’?
- A
Manmohan Singh
- B
Amitav Ghosh
- C
Diksha Basu
- D
Arundhati Roy
Show answer
C. Diksha BasuDiksha Basu is the author of The Windfall (2017), a satirical novel about a Delhi family adjusting to sudden wealth after moving from East Delhi to Gurgaon.
Amitav Ghosh wrote The Shadow Lines and the Ibis trilogy; Arundhati Roy wrote The God of Small Things; Manmohan Singh is an economist and former Prime Minister.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 28archived
Which of the following state receives rainfall due to western disturbances?
- A
Punjab
- B
West Bengal
- C
Kerala
- D
Gujarat
Show answer
A. PunjabWestern disturbances are extra-tropical low-pressure systems that originate over the Mediterranean and travel eastward, reaching north-west India in winter (Dec-Feb). They bring rain and snow to Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, J&K and western UP, and are vital for the Rabi (wheat) crop.
Kerala and West Bengal get their rain from the south-west monsoon; Gujarat too lies outside the main path of these disturbances.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 29archived
Which act ended the "Trade Monopoly" of the East India Company?
- A
Regulating Act of 1773
- B
Pitt's India Act of 1784
- C
The Charter Act of 1833
- D
The Charter Act of 1813
Show answer
D. The Charter Act of 1813The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the East India Company's trade monopoly with India and opened Indian trade to all British merchants. The Company retained only its monopoly over the China trade and the tea trade — these were ended by the Charter Act of 1833, which terminated all its commercial activities entirely.
The Regulating Act (1773) and Pitt's India Act (1784) only restructured administration; they left the trade monopoly untouched.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 30archived
Which country hosted the 9 th BRICS Summit in the year 2017?
- A
Brazil
- B
Russia
- C
India
- D
China
Show answer
D. ChinaThe 9th BRICS Summit was hosted by China in Xiamen from 3-5 September 2017, with the theme "BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future". India hosted the 8th summit (Goa, 2016) and South Africa hosted the 10th (Johannesburg, 2018).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 31archived
'Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan' is launched to digitally literate 6 crore rural households by __________.
- A
March, 2019
- B
March, 2020
- C
April, 2021
- D
March, 2022
Show answer
A. March, 2019The Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA), approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2017 under the Digital India programme, aimed to make 6 crore rural households digitally literate by March 2019. It targets one member per eligible household in the 14-60 age group.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 32archived
What is the name of the first Super Computer of the world?
- A
CDC 6600
- B
USENET
- C
COMODOR VIC/20
- D
PARAM - 10000
Show answer
A. CDC 6600The CDC 6600, designed by Seymour Cray at Control Data Corporation and released in 1964, is regarded as the world's first successful supercomputer, achieving about 3 megaFLOPS.
USENET is a discussion network (1980), Commodore VIC-20 is an early home computer (1980), and PARAM-10000 is an Indian supercomputer developed by C-DAC in 1998.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 33archived
Who was the pioneer of Chipko movement of 1973?
- A
Sambaji
- B
Baba Amte
- C
Sunderlal Bahuguna
- D
Medha Patkar
Show answer
C. Sunderlal BahugunaThe Chipko movement began in 1973 in the Mandal village of Chamoli district (then Uttar Pradesh, now Uttarakhand), where villagers hugged trees to stop contractors from felling them. Sunderlal Bahuguna, a Gandhian environmentalist, is recognised as its pioneer and chief spokesperson; his slogan "Ecology is permanent economy" carried the movement nationally.
Medha Patkar led the Narmada Bachao Andolan, and Baba Amte worked on leprosy rehabilitation and later joined the Narmada movement.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 34archived
Match the following:
Battles
Year
1. Battle of Buxar
a. 1576
2. Battle of Plassey
b. 1764
3. Battle of Haldighati
c. 1757
- A
1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a
- B
1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a
- C
1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c
- D
1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b
Show answer
B. 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - aPairing each battle with its year: Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764 (1 - b); Battle of Plassey in 1757 (2 - c); Battle of Haldighati in 1576 (3 - a).
Hence the correct match is 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 35archived
With which country has India signed an agreement for assistance in green and sustainable construction of infrastructure in the Himalayan Kingdom in December, 2016?
- A
Nepal
- B
Afghanistan
- C
Bhutan
- D
Pakistan
Show answer
C. BhutanIn December 2016, India and Bhutan signed an agreement under which India would assist Bhutan in the green and sustainable construction of infrastructure in the Himalayan Kingdom. The pact reflected the long-standing India-Bhutan development partnership and Bhutan's carbon-neutral commitments.
Nepal, Afghanistan and Pakistan had no comparable agreement of this description in that month.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 36archived
Which tax causes a burden on the poorer section of the society?
- A
Direct Tax
- B
Indirect Tax
- C
Both Direct and Indirect Tax
- D
None of these
Show answer
B. Indirect TaxIndirect taxes (sales tax, GST, VAT) are levied at a uniform rate on goods and services, so every consumer pays the same percentage on a purchase regardless of income. Since poorer households spend a much larger share of their income on consumption than richer ones (who save and invest more), the same tax takes a bigger bite out of low incomes. This regressive nature places the heavier real burden on the poor.
Direct taxes (income tax, property tax) are typically progressive, with rates rising with income and exemptions for low earners, so they fall more on the wealthy.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 37archived
Why does Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats both receive sufficient rainfall but Deccan Plateau receives scanty rainfall?
- A
It is a rain shadow area
- B
It is located parallel to wind direction
- C
It is away from the coast
- D
Rain bearing clouds are absent
Show answer
A. It is a rain shadow areaMoisture-laden south-west monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea strike the Western Ghats, are forced to rise, cool, and drop heavy orographic rainfall on the windward (western) slopes. After crossing the Ghats, the winds descend on the leeward side; descending air warms and its moisture-holding capacity rises, so very little precipitation occurs. The Deccan Plateau lies on this leeward side and therefore falls in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats. The Eastern Ghats receive rain from the retreating north-east monsoon as well, but the plateau between them stays dry.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 38archived
Which one of the following is not a type of coal?
- A
Anthracite
- B
Lignite
- C
Peat
- D
Siderite
Show answer
D. SideriteCoal is a sedimentary rock formed from compacted plant matter; its grades, in increasing order of carbon content, are Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite. Anthracite, Lignite and Peat are therefore all stages/types of coal.
Siderite is an iron carbonate mineral (\(\text{FeCO}_3\)) — an iron ore, not a coal. Hence Siderite is the odd one out.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 39archived
In 2017 Australian Open, Serena Williams defeated her sister Venus Williams to win the ______ Grand Slam Singles title of her career.
- A
23rd
- B
18th
- C
26th
- D
20th
Show answer
A. 23rdAt the 2017 Australian Open final, Serena Williams beat sister Venus Williams 6–4, 6–4 to claim her 23rd Grand Slam singles title. This victory took her past Steffi Graf’s 22 and made her the most-decorated singles champion of the Open Era, second only to Margaret Court’s 24 overall.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 40archived
Which Indian state hosted the 3 days long 'International Yoga Fest' held from 8th to 10th March, 2017?
- A
Uttar Pradesh
- B
Madhya Pradesh
- C
Maharashtra
- D
Delhi
Show answer
D. DelhiThe 3-day International Yoga Fest, organised by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga under the Ministry of AYUSH, was held from 8–10 March 2017 at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi. The capital hosted yoga gurus and delegates from across the world ahead of the International Day of Yoga.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 41archived
Fog, clouds, mist are examples of _______.
- A
Aerosol
- B
Solid sol
- C
Foam
- D
Gel
Show answer
A. AerosolA colloid in which the dispersion medium is a gas and the dispersed phase is a liquid or solid is called an aerosol. Fog and mist are tiny liquid water droplets suspended in air; clouds are droplets or ice crystals in air — all fit the liquid/solid-in-gas pattern of an aerosol.
Solid sol is solid-in-solid (coloured glass); foam is gas-in-liquid (shaving cream); gel is liquid-in-solid (jelly) — none match.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 42archived
In which of the following part of the cell does the pyruvic acid is broken down into carbon dioxide, water and energy?
- A
Cytoplasm
- B
Nucleus
- C
Mitochondria
- D
Chloroplast
Show answer
C. MitochondriaGlycolysis splits glucose into pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate enters the mitochondria, where it is converted to acetyl-CoA and oxidised through the Krebs cycle (matrix) and the electron transport chain (inner membrane). These mitochondrial steps release \(\text{CO}_2\), produce \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) via oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and generate the bulk of the ATP. Hence mitochondria — the ‘powerhouse of the cell’ — are the site of pyruvate’s complete breakdown.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 43archived
What is plant cell wall mainly composed of?
- A
Lipids
- B
Vitamin
- C
Cellulose
- D
Protein
Show answer
C. CelluloseThe plant cell wall is chiefly built of cellulose, a polysaccharide of glucose units linked by β-1,4 glycosidic bonds. These long chains aggregate into microfibrils that give the wall its tensile strength and rigidity. Lipids form the plasma membrane, proteins serve enzymatic/structural roles in minor amounts, and vitamins are not structural at all — so cellulose is the principal constituent.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 44archived
After which five year plan, 'The Rolling Plan' was implemented?
- A
Third Plan
- B
Fifth Plan
- C
Seventh Plan
- D
Ninth Plan
Show answer
B. Fifth PlanThe Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79) was cut short in 1978 by the new Janata government. Economist D. T. Lakdawala then introduced the Rolling Plan (1978–80), which combined an annual plan with three- to five-year and longer perspective plans, revised each year. It was scrapped in 1980 when the Sixth Plan began. Hence the Rolling Plan came right after the Fifth Plan.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 45archived
Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament?
- A
Amendment in Fundamental Rights
- B
Creation of New States
- C
Abolition of Legislative Councils in State
- D
Rules and Procedures in Parliament
Show answer
A. Amendment in Fundamental RightsUnder Article 368, an amendment to the Fundamental Rights (Part III) requires a special majority — a majority of the total membership of each House plus a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
By contrast, the creation of new states (Articles 3–4), abolition or creation of State Legislative Councils (Article 169) and parliamentary rules of procedure (Article 118) need only a simple majority. Hence the amendment of Fundamental Rights is the option needing a special majority.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 46archived
Which of the following pair is INCORRECT?
I. Parsec - Distance
II. Barrel - Liquid
III. Light year – Time
- A
Only III
- B
Only I and III
- C
Only II
- D
All are correct
Show answer
A. Only IIIA parsec is a unit of astronomical distance (~3.26 light-years), so I is correct. A barrel is a unit of volume, commonly used for liquids such as crude oil (1 barrel = 42 US gallons ≈ 159 L), so II is correct. A light year is the distance light travels in vacuum in one year (\(\approx 9.46\times 10^{15}\) m); despite the word ‘year’ in its name, it measures distance, not time. Hence only pair III is incorrect.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 47archived
Edward Jenner discovered vaccine for which of the following disease?
- A
Polio
- B
Tuberculosis
- C
Small Pox
- D
Rabies
Show answer
C. Small PoxIn 1796, English physician Edward Jenner observed that milkmaids who caught cowpox did not get smallpox. He inoculated 8-year-old James Phipps with cowpox material from Sarah Nelmes, and the boy remained immune when later exposed to smallpox. This was the first successful vaccine, and the word ‘vaccine’ itself comes from vacca (Latin for cow). Polio vaccines came from Salk/Sabin, rabies from Pasteur, and TB’s BCG from Calmette & Guérin.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 48archived
What is the SI unit of Power?
- A
Boyle
- B
Watt
- C
Newton
- D
Pascal
Show answer
B. WattPower is the rate of doing work: \(P=\dfrac{W}{t}\). With work in joules and time in seconds, the SI unit of power is joule per second, given the special name watt (W), where \(1\,\text{W}=1\,\text{J/s}\). Newton is the SI unit of force, pascal of pressure, and ‘Boyle’ is not an SI unit at all.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 49archived
Which article was referred to as the 'the heart and soul' of the constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
- A
Article 4
- B
Article 32
- C
Article 28
- D
Article 30
Show answer
B. Article 32Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution. It guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, letting any citizen move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Without this enforceability the other Fundamental Rights would be mere paper guarantees, which is why Ambedkar accorded it pride of place.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 50archived
Who was awarded with the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2017?
- A
Yash Chopra
- B
Kamini Kaushal
- C
Shatrughan Sinha
- D
Moushumi Chatterjee
Show answer
C. Shatrughan SinhaAt the 62nd Filmfare Awards held on 14 January 2017, the Lifetime Achievement Award was conferred on veteran actor Shatrughan Sinha for his decades-long contribution to Hindi cinema across hits such as Kalicharan, Dostana and Shaan. Yash Chopra (2006), Kamini Kaushal and Moushumi Chatterjee were honoured in different years.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 51archived
For what value of X, 211X will be a perfect square?
- A
4
- B
5
- C
6
- D
9
Show answer
C. 6A perfect square ending in 6 must have a square root ending in 4 or 6. Since \(45^2=2025\) and \(47^2=2209\), the only candidate in the range 2110–2119 is \(46^2\).
\[46^2=2116\]
Hence the number is 2116, giving X = 6. Checking the other options: \(2114, 2115, 2119\) are not perfect squares (none equals \(42^2, 45^2, 47^2,\) or \(48^2\)).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 52archived
In the given figure ST || RP, then what is the value (in degree) of supplementary angle of y?

- A
10
- B
60
- C
100
- D
170
Show answer
C. 100Calculation:
Using angle sum property in triangle PQR
⇒ 3x + 2x + 4x = 180
⇒ 9x = 180
⇒ x = 20
Let the point where PQ intersects TS be A
∠(QAS) = ∠(RPQ) (∵ PR || TS)
Using angle sum property in triangle QSA
⇒ 3x + y + 2x = 180
⇒ Supplementary of y = 180 - y = 5x = 5 × 20 = 100
∴ The measure of supplementary of y is 100
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 53archived
ΔPQR has sides PQ and PR measuring 983 and 893 units respectively. How many such triangles are possible with all integral sides?
- A
1876
- B
90
- C
1785
- D
1786
Show answer
C. 1785By the triangle inequality, the third side \(x\) must satisfy:
\[|983-893| \lt x \lt 983+893 \;\Rightarrow\; 90 \lt x \lt 1876\]
Since \(x\) is an integer, \(x\in\{91,92,\dots,1875\}\).
Number of integer values \(=1875-91+1=\textbf{1785}\).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 54archived
How many runs has the player scored against Pakistan?
- A
272
- B
192
- C
256
- D
144
Show answer
B. 192Runs scored against Pakistan can be given as 12% of 1600 = 12 × 1600/100 = 192
∴ Runs scored against Pakistan are 192
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 55archived
The difference between the runs scored against England and Pakistan is same as the difference between which of the following two countries?
- A
South Africa and Sri Lanka
- B
South Africa and New Zealand
- C
Australia and Sri Lanka
- D
Australia and New Zealand
Show answer
D. Australia and New ZealandDifference between the runs scored against England and Pakistan = 21% - 12% = 9%
Which is same as that of Australia and New Zealand = 25% - 16% = 9%
∴ The answer is Australia and New Zealand
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 56archived
If a = 73, b = 74 and c = 75, then what is the value of a 3+ b 3+ c 3 - 3abc?
- A
365
- B
444
- C
666
- D
999
Show answer
C. 666Use the identity:
\[a^3+b^3+c^3-3abc=\tfrac{1}{2}(a+b+c)\big[(a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2\big]\]
Step 1 — Sum and differences: \(a+b+c=73+74+75=222\); \((a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2=1+1+4=6\).
Step 2 — Substitute:
\[\tfrac{1}{2}(222)(6)=111\times 6=\mathbf{666}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 57archived
What is the difference in runs scored by the player against Australia and Sri Lanka?
- A
256
- B
128
- C
114
- D
80
Show answer
A. 256Difference between the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka = 25% - 9% = 16%
Difference between the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka = 16% of 1600 = 256
∴ The difference in the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka is 256 runs
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 58archived
Difference between the total runs scored against Australia and New Zealand and the total runs scored against Sri Lanka and Pakistan make what sectorial angle (in degrees) in the pie chart?
- A
90
- B
144
- C
36
- D
72
Show answer
D. 72Total Runs scored by Australia and New Zealand = 25% + 16% = 41%
Total Runs scored by Sri Lanka and Pakistan = 12% + 9% = 21%
Difference Between them is 41% - 21% = 20%
Angle can be given as
⇒ 20 × 360/100 = 72
∴ The angle subtended by sector is 72
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 59archived
If the cost price of 48 articles is equal to the selling price of 32 articles, then what is the profit percentage?
- A
20
- B
25
- C
50
- D
75
Show answer
C. 50If CP of 48 articles equals SP of 32 articles, then \(48\,\text{CP}=32\,\text{SP}\), so:
\[\frac{\text{SP}}{\text{CP}}=\frac{48}{32}=\frac{3}{2}\]
Taking CP = 2 and SP = 3, profit = 1 and:
\[\text{Profit \%}=\frac{1}{2}\times100=\mathbf{50\%}\]
Shortcut: when CP of \(x\) = SP of \(y\), profit% \(=\frac{x-y}{y}\times100=\frac{16}{32}\times100=50\%\).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 60archived
The marked price of an article is 40% more than its cost price. If 15% discount is given on the marked price, then what will be the profit percentage?
- A
25
- B
15
- C
21
- D
19
Show answer
D. 19Let CP = Rs 100.
Step 1 — Marked Price (40% above CP):
\[\text{MP}=100\times 1.40=140\]
Step 2 — Selling Price after 15% discount:
\[\text{SP}=140\times 0.85=119\]
Step 3 — Profit %: \(\text{SP}-\text{CP}=19\), so profit = 19%.
Compact form: \(1.40\times 0.85=1.19\Rightarrow 19\%\) profit.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 61archived
The average of 8 consecutive natural numbers is 38.5. What is the largest of these 8 numbers?
- A
41
- B
39
- C
42
- D
45
Show answer
C. 42For consecutive numbers, the average equals the mean of the middle terms. The sum is:
\[S=38.5\times 8=308\]
Let the numbers be \(n, n+1,\dots, n+7\). Then:
\[8n+28=308 \;\Rightarrow\; n=35\]
So the numbers are 35, 36, ..., 42. The largest is 42.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 62archived
2 men or 3 women can complete a job in 96 days. Then 6 men and 7 women will complete the same job in how many days?
- A
18
- B
27
- C
20
- D
24
Show answer
A. 18Step 1 — Equivalence: Since 2 men \(\equiv\) 3 women, 1 man \(\equiv \tfrac{3}{2}\) women, so 6 men \(\equiv 9\) women.
Total workforce \(=9+7=16\) equivalent women.
Step 2 — Total work: 3 women take 96 days, so total work \(=3\times 96=288\) woman-days.
Step 3 — Time required:
\[T=\frac{288}{16}=\mathbf{18}\text{ days}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 63archived
After deducting 12% from a certain sum and then deducting 25% from the remainder, 2508 is left, then what is the initial sum?
- A
3500
- B
3450
- C
3970
- D
3800
Show answer
D. 3800After successive deductions of 12% and 25%, the fraction left is:
\[0.88\times 0.75=0.66\]
So \(0.66\,S=2508\), giving:
\[S=\frac{2508}{0.66}=\mathbf{3800}\]
Check: 12% of 3800 = 456; remainder 3344. 25% of 3344 = 836; remainder 2508. ✔
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 64archived
Two trains are moving in the opposite direction at speed of 30 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively, whose lengths are 450 m and 550 m respectively. What is the time taken (in seconds) by slower train to cross the faster train?
- A
48
- B
54
- C
62
- D
72
Show answer
A. 48Trains move in opposite directions, so their relative speed is the sum:
\[v=(30+45)\text{ km/h}=75\times\tfrac{5}{18}=\tfrac{125}{6}\text{ m/s}\]
The distance to fully cross is the sum of lengths: \(450+550=1000\) m.
\[t=\frac{1000}{125/6}=1000\times\frac{6}{125}=\mathbf{48}\text{ s}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 65archived
If x - (1/x) = 3, then what is the value of (2x 4+ 3x 3+ 13x 2 - 3x + 2)/(3x 4+ 3)?
- A
1/3
- B
2/3
- C
4/3
- D
5/3
Show answer
C. 4/3Step 1 — From the given: Squaring \(x-\tfrac{1}{x}=3\) gives \(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}=11\).
Step 2 — Divide numerator and denominator by \(x^2\):
\[\frac{2x^2+\tfrac{2}{x^2}+3x-\tfrac{3}{x}+13}{3\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)}=\frac{2\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)+3\left(x-\tfrac{1}{x}\right)+13}{3\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)}\]
Step 3 — Substitute:
\[\frac{2(11)+3(3)+13}{3(11)}=\frac{44}{33}=\mathbf{\tfrac{4}{3}}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 66archived
If x 2+ (1/x 2) = 31/9 and x > 0, then what is the value of x 3+ (1/x 3)?
- A
70/9
- B
154/27
- C
349/27
- D
349/7
Show answer
B. 154/27Step 1 — Find \(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\): From \(\left(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\right)^2=x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}+2\):
\[\left(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\right)^2=\tfrac{31}{9}+2=\tfrac{49}{9}\]
Since \(x>0\), \(x+\tfrac{1}{x}=\tfrac{7}{3}\).
Step 2 — Apply \(a^3+b^3=(a+b)^3-3(a+b)\):
\[x^3+\tfrac{1}{x^3}=\left(\tfrac{7}{3}\right)^3-3\left(\tfrac{7}{3}\right)=\tfrac{343}{27}-7=\mathbf{\tfrac{154}{27}}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 67archived
What is the value of \(\frac{{{x^2} - 5x + 6}}{{{x^2} - 3x + 2}} \div \frac{{{x^2} - 7x + 12}}{{{x^2} - 5x + 4}}\) ?
- A
1
- B
2
- C
(x - 2)/(x - 1)
- D
x + 3)/(x + 1)
Show answer
A. 1Factor each quadratic:
\(x^2-5x+6=(x-2)(x-3)\); \(x^2-3x+2=(x-1)(x-2)\);
\(x^2-7x+12=(x-3)(x-4)\); \(x^2-5x+4=(x-1)(x-4)\).
Rewriting division as multiplication by the reciprocal:
\[\frac{(x-2)(x-3)}{(x-1)(x-2)}\times\frac{(x-1)(x-4)}{(x-3)(x-4)}=\mathbf{1}\]
All factors cancel.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 68archived
What is the simplified value of sec 6A - tan 6A - 3 sec 2A tan 2A?
- A
-1
- B
0
- C
1
- D
sec A tan A
Show answer
C. 1Let \(a=\sec^2A\), \(b=\tan^2A\). Using \(a^3-b^3=(a-b)^3+3ab(a-b)\):
\[\sec^6A-\tan^6A=(\sec^2A-\tan^2A)^3+3\sec^2A\tan^2A(\sec^2A-\tan^2A)\]
Since \(\sec^2A-\tan^2A=1\), this equals \(1+3\sec^2A\tan^2A\).
Therefore:
\[\sec^6A-\tan^6A-3\sec^2A\tan^2A=1+3\sec^2A\tan^2A-3\sec^2A\tan^2A=\mathbf{1}\]
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 69archived
A person lent certain sum of money at 10% per annum simple interest. In 20 years the interest amounted to Rs 500 more than the sum lent. What was the sum lent (in Rs)?
- A
200
- B
500
- C
1000
- D
250
Show answer
B. 500Using \(\text{SI}=\dfrac{P\cdot R\cdot T}{100}\) with the condition SI = P + 500:
\[P+500=\frac{P\times 10\times 20}{100}=2P\]
Solving: \(P=\mathbf{500}\).
Check: SI on Rs 500 at 10% for 20 years = Rs 1000, which is Rs 500 more than the principal. ✔
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 70archived
Three partners A, B and C share profit such that three times the share of A is equal to two times the share of B and equal to 12 times the share of C. What is the ratio of the profits of A, B and C respectively
- A
3 : 2 : 12
- B
12 : 2 : 3
- C
4 : 6 : 1
- D
1 : 6 : 4
Show answer
C. 4 : 6 : 1Let \(3A=2B=12C=k\). Then:
\[A=\tfrac{k}{3},\quad B=\tfrac{k}{2},\quad C=\tfrac{k}{12}\]
So \(A:B:C=\tfrac{1}{3}:\tfrac{1}{2}:\tfrac{1}{12}\). Multiplying through by LCM(3,2,12) = 12:
\[A:B:C=\mathbf{4:6:1}\]
Verification: \(3(4)=2(6)=12(1)=12\). ✔
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 71archived
In the given figure, TB passes through centre O. What is the radius of the circle?

- A
(2√5)/3
- B
(3√2)/5
- C
(3√5)/2
- D
(2√3)/5
Show answer
C. (3√5)/2From the property of circle we know that
⇒ TP 2= AP × (PB)
⇒ 4(x + 4) = 6 2= 36
⇒ x = 5 ----(i)
Now join TA, in triangle TAP, using Pythagoras theorem since ∠TAP is 90
⇒ TP 2= TA 2+ PA 2
⇒ TA = √(6 2- 4 2)
⇒ TA = 2√5 ----(ii)
In triangle TAB, using Pythagoras theorem since ∠TAB is 90
⇒ TB 2= TA 2+ BA 2Using (i) and (ii)
⇒ TB = 2 ×radius = √(2√5 2+ 5 2) = 3√5
⇒ radius = (3√5)/2
∴ The radius of the circle is (3√5)/2
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 72archived
If the radius of the cylinder is decreased by 20%, then by how much percent the height must be increased, so that the volume of the cylinder remains same?
- A
20
- B
36.25
- C
56.25
- D
65
Show answer
C. 56.25Volume of a cylinder is \(V=\pi r^2 h\). For volume to stay constant, \(r^2 h\) must remain the same.
Step 1 — New radius:
\(r_2=0.8\,r_1\), so \(r_2^2=0.64\,r_1^2=\tfrac{16}{25}r_1^2\).
Step 2 — Solve for new height:
\[r_1^2 h_1=\tfrac{16}{25}r_1^2\,h_2 \implies h_2=\tfrac{25}{16}h_1\]
Step 3 — Percentage increase:
\[\frac{h_2-h_1}{h_1}\times 100=\left(\tfrac{25}{16}-1\right)\times 100=\tfrac{9}{16}\times 100=56.25\%\]
Therefore the height must be increased by 56.25%.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 73archived
What is the simplified value of (cosec A - sin A)(sec A - cos A)(tan A + cot A)?
- A
-1
- B
0
- C
1
- D
2
Show answer
C. 1Convert each bracket to sine and cosine using the identity \(\sin^2 A+\cos^2 A=1\).
Step 1 — Simplify each bracket:
\[\operatorname{cosec} A-\sin A=\frac{1-\sin^2 A}{\sin A}=\frac{\cos^2 A}{\sin A}\]
\[\sec A-\cos A=\frac{1-\cos^2 A}{\cos A}=\frac{\sin^2 A}{\cos A}\]
\[\tan A+\cot A=\frac{\sin^2 A+\cos^2 A}{\sin A\cos A}=\frac{1}{\sin A\cos A}\]
Step 2 — Multiply:
\[\frac{\cos^2 A}{\sin A}\cdot\frac{\sin^2 A}{\cos A}\cdot\frac{1}{\sin A\cos A}=\frac{\sin^2 A\cos^2 A}{\sin^2 A\cos^2 A}=1\]
Therefore the simplified value is 1.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 74archived
In the given figure, PQR is a triangle in which, PQ = 24 cm, PR = 12 cm and altitude PS = 8 cm. If PT is the diameter of the circumcircle, what will be the length (in cm) of the circum-radius?

- A
15
- B
18
- C
20
- D
21
Show answer
B. 18If a, b, and c are the three sides of a triangle, then the circum-radius ‘R’ is given as,
R = abc/4A
Where A = area of triangle = (base × height)/2
Given, height = 8 cm
Let base = QR = x cm
⇒ Area of triangle = A = 8x/2 = 4x
The other two sides of triangle are of lengths 24 cm and 12 cm,
∴ Circum-radius of triangle = (24 × 12 × x)/(4 × 4x) = 18 cm
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 75archived
What is the simplified value of (cos 4A - sin 4A)?
- A
0
- B
2 cos 2A
- C
cos 2A
- D
1
Show answer
C. cos 2AApply difference of squares to \(\cos^4 A-\sin^4 A\):
\[\cos^4 A-\sin^4 A=(\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A)(\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A)\]
Using \(\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A=1\) and the double-angle identity \(\cos 2A=\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A\):
\[=\cos 2A\cdot 1=\cos 2A\]
Therefore the simplified value is cos 2A.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 76archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.
That which is away from a center
- A
Eccentric
- B
Eclectic
- C
Ellipsis
- D
Equine
Show answer
A. EccentricEccentric literally means "off-centre" — deviating from a central point (used both geometrically for non-circular orbits and figuratively for unconventional behaviour). This matches "away from a centre".
"Eclectic" means drawn from diverse sources; "ellipsis" is the omission mark (...); "equine" relates to horses — none touch the idea of a centre.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 77archived
The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P- Epistemological idealists (such as Kant) might insist that the only things which can be directly known for certain are ideas.
Q- The approach to idealism by Western philosophers has been different to that of Eastern thinkers.
R- In much of Western thought (though not in such major Western thinkers as Plato and Hegel) the ideal relates to direct knowledge of subjective mental ideas, or images.
S- It is then usually juxtaposed with realism in which the real is said to have an absolute existence prior to and independent of our knowledge.
- A
RQPS
- B
PQSR
- C
PRQS
- D
QRSP
Show answer
D. QRSPSentence Q is the only general opener — it introduces the Western-vs-Eastern contrast on idealism. R follows by elaborating "In much of Western thought…", developing Q. S uses "It is then usually juxtaposed with realism", where "It" refers to Western idealism just defined in R. P closes with a specific instance (Kant's epistemological idealism). Hence the order is QRSP.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 78archived
In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
Karnataka grows coffee
- A
Coffee is being grown in Karnataka.
- B
Coffee grown in Karnataka.
- C
Coffee is grown in Karnataka.
- D
Let the coffee be grown in Karnataka.
Show answer
C. Coffee is grown in Karnataka.The active sentence "Karnataka grows coffee" is in the simple present tense. The passive form is object + is/am/are + past participle (+ by/in agent).
Object "coffee" (singular) becomes subject; "grows" becomes "is grown"; "Karnataka" (a place) takes the preposition "in". This gives "Coffee is grown in Karnataka." Option 1 is present continuous (wrong tense); option 2 is a fragment; option 4 is an imperative passive.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 79archived
In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
Gopal's mother reminded him to take his wallet.
- A
“Are you going to take your wallet or not?” said Gopal to his mother.
- B
“Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal” said his mother.
- C
Gopal's mother said, “Remember your wallet, Gopal?
- D
“Here is your wallet Gopal” said his mother.
Show answer
B. “Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal” said his mother.The reporting verb "reminded … to take" in indirect speech signals that the original direct speech was a reminder/negative imperative about not forgetting the wallet. Option 2, "Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal," said his mother, fits exactly: the imperative converts to the infinitive "to take", "your" becomes "his", and vocative "Gopal" becomes object "him".
Option 1 is a question by Gopal; option 3 is also interrogative; option 4 is a statement of fact, not a reminder.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 80archived
Organization are institutions in which members compete for status and _____.
- A
growth
- B
money
- C
power
- D
success
Show answer
C. powerThe passage explicitly mentions later "power to influence the activities of others", echoing the first blank. The pairing "status and power" is the standard collocation for what members compete for in organizations.
"Growth" and "success" are outcomes, not direct objects of competition alongside status; "money" is too narrow given the wider talk of resources, advancement and influence.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 81archived
They _____ for the resources
- A
compete
- B
expand
- C
rely
- D
run
Show answer
A. competeThe blank takes "_____ for the resources", a verb that pairs with "for". The preceding sentence establishes the theme of members competing for status and power, so the natural continuation is that they also compete for resources.
"Expand", "rely" and "run" do not collocate naturally with "for the resources" in this context.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 82archived
Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
If (you will approach) her sincerely, she will listen to your problem definitely.
- A
you approach
- B
you are approaching
- C
you will be approaching
- D
No improvement
Show answer
A. you approachThis is a first conditional sentence: If + simple present, … will + base verb. The main clause "she will listen" already uses "will", so the if-clause must be in the simple present.
"You will approach" wrongly puts "will" in the if-clause. The correct improvement is "you approach". Options 2 and 3 use continuous tenses that don't fit a general future condition.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 83archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Rise like a phoenix
- A
Something memorable
- B
Time to answer for one's action
- C
To become successful again
- D
To make people happy
Show answer
C. To become successful againThe idiom "rise like a phoenix" comes from the myth of the phoenix — a bird that burns to ashes and is reborn from them. Figuratively, it means to recover from failure or ruin and become successful again.
"Something memorable", "time to answer for one's action" and "to make people happy" do not capture the core idea of rebirth and renewed success.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 84archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.
One who values practicality
- A
Apotheosis
- B
Pliable
- C
Pragmatist
- D
Realist
Show answer
C. PragmatistA pragmatist is, by definition, a person who deals with things sensibly and realistically, guided by practical considerations rather than theory — a direct match for "one who values practicality".
"Apotheosis" means the highest point or deification; "pliable" means easily bent or influenced; "realist" describes someone who accepts things as they are, but does not specifically denote valuing practicality as a guiding principle.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 85archived
of the organization, for example, _____ to expand
- A
finance
- B
infrastructure
- C
resources
- D
source
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A. financeThe blank needs a resource used "to expand their own departments". Finance (money/funding) is the resource departments most directly need to grow — to hire, equip and run projects.
"Resources" is already used in the previous clause (redundant); "infrastructure" and "source" don't naturally collocate with "to expand their own departments" as the means of expansion.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 86archived
The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P- A sensitive mind easily absorbs the vibrations emanating from the thought of the people it associates with.
Q- We often say that a person is known by the company he keeps.
R- The violent can be made calm by exuding thought of love and compassion.
S- Visits to holy places are considered good because the good thoughts of the holy people gathered there and the ensuing vibrations definitely affect one in a positive fashion.
- A
RQPS
- B
QRSP
- C
PQRS
- D
SRQP
Show answer
A. RQPSSentence R opens by stating a striking effect of thought ("violent can be made calm…"), inviting elaboration. Q follows with the familiar proverb "a person is known by the company he keeps", generalising R's idea about influence. P then explains the underlying mechanism — a sensitive mind absorbs vibrations from associates' thoughts. S closes with a confirming example: holy places give positive vibrations. Hence the order is RQPS.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 87archived
their own departments, for _____ advancement and
- A
career
- B
financial
- C
regional
- D
technological
Show answer
A. careerThe blank modifies "advancement" in the context of what employees compete for inside an organization. The standard collocation is career advancement — promotion and progress in one's professional path.
"Financial", "regional" and "technological" advancement don't fit the personal-progress theme already established by competition for status, resources and power.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 88archived
In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
- A
Fabulous
- B
Gorgeous
- C
Heterogeneous
- D
Inocuous
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D. InocuousThe correct spelling of the word meaning "not harmful or offensive" is Innocuous (with a double 'n'), derived from Latin in- (not) + nocere (to harm). "Inocuous" omits one 'n' and is therefore misspelt.
Fabulous, Gorgeous, and Heterogeneous are all spelt correctly. Hence the incorrectly spelt word is Inocuous.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 89archived
for power to _____ the activities of others.
- A
affect
- B
control
- C
curb
- D
pursue
Show answer
B. controlThe blank requires a verb describing what power lets one do with others' activities. Control means to direct or regulate actions, which is exactly how power is exercised within an organisation.
"Affect" is too weak and vague; "curb" narrows it to restraint only; "pursue" (to chase) is contextually unsuitable. Hence the completed phrase reads "for power to control the activities of others."
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 90archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Damp squib
- A
Complete failure
- B
Complete knowledge
- C
To motivate
- D
To squander money
Show answer
A. Complete failureA "squib" is a small firework; when damp it fails to ignite, fizzling out instead of exploding. The idiom damp squib therefore describes something that was expected to be impressive but turned out to be a complete failure or anticlimax.
"Complete knowledge", "to motivate" and "to squander money" bear no relation to the idiom's sense of disappointing outcome.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 91archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.
Phlegmatic
- A
Ardent
- B
Indifferent
- C
Prohibit
- D
Merciless
Show answer
A. ArdentPhlegmatic means calm, unemotional, and not easily excited. Its opposite must describe strong feeling or passion.
Ardent means passionate, enthusiastic, and full of fervour — the direct antonym. "Indifferent" is a near-synonym (both imply lack of feeling); "Prohibit" is a verb meaning to forbid; "Merciless" means cruel — neither contrasts with calmness. Hence the antonym is Ardent.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 92archived
Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
The mobile phones have made digital cameras a little (superfluous) in today's world.
- A
extinct
- B
obsolete
- C
redundancy
- D
No improvement
Show answer
B. obsoleteThe sentence needs an adjective conveying that digital cameras have become outdated due to smartphone cameras. Obsolete means "no longer produced or used; out of date," precisely capturing this technological displacement.
"Extinct" overstates — digital cameras still exist; "Redundancy" is a noun and grammatically wrong here; "Superfluous" (the original) means merely "extra," missing the nuance of being superseded. Hence obsolete is the correct improvement.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 93archived
In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
- A
Pedestrain
- B
Plaintiff
- C
Potatoes
- D
Potassium
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A. PedestrainThe correct spelling is Pedestrian (ending in -ian, meaning a person who walks). The option "Pedestrain" swaps the order to -ain, making it misspelt.
Plaintiff, Potatoes, and Potassium are all spelt correctly. Hence the incorrectly spelt word is Pedestrain.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 94archived
In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.
The CEO only discussed (1)/ the new venture (2)/ with his manager. (3)/ No Error (4)
- A
1
- B
2
- C
3
- D
4
Show answer
A. 1The focusing adverb "only" must sit immediately before the word or phrase it limits. The intended meaning is that the manager was the sole person involved — so "only" should modify "with his manager," giving "The CEO discussed the new venture only with his manager."
As written, "The CEO only discussed" implies discussing was the sole action taken, which distorts the meaning. The error lies in part (1).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 95archived
In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.
Due to the security reasons we were _____ from entering into the cockpit of the plane.
- A
denied
- B
rejected
- C
stopped
- D
warned
Show answer
C. stoppedThe sentence describes being physically prevented from entering a restricted area at a checkpoint. Stopped idiomatically pairs with "from + -ing" ("stopped from entering") and conveys being halted by security.
"Denied" typically takes a noun object ("denied entry/permission"), not "denied from entering"; "rejected" suits applications, not physical access; "warned" describes a caution, not prevention. Hence the correct word is stopped.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 96archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.
Exorbitant
- A
Clear
- B
Dull
- C
High
- D
Rare
Show answer
C. HighExorbitant means excessively or unreasonably high, especially in reference to a price or amount (e.g., "exorbitant fees"). Among the options, High conveys the same idea of being great in amount or value.
"Clear" relates to clarity, "Dull" to lack of brightness or interest, and "Rare" to scarcity — none captures the sense of "excessively large." Hence the closest synonym is High.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 97archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.
Churlish
- A
Belittle
- B
Courteous
- C
Fervent
- D
Uncouth
Show answer
B. CourteousChurlish means rude, ill-mannered, or surly. The opposite is someone polite and respectful — Courteous.
"Belittle" (verb: to disparage) is unrelated; "Fervent" means passionate, not polite; "Uncouth" (rude, lacking refinement) is a synonym, not an antonym. Hence the antonym is Courteous.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 98archived
In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.
Ankita is disgusted _____ the habit of her brother.
- A
at
- B
on
- C
of
- D
with
Show answer
D. withThe adjective "disgusted" takes the preposition with when the source of disgust is a person or their habit/behaviour (e.g., "disgusted with his laziness"). Since the object here is "the habit of her brother," "with" is the natural fit.
"At" or "by" is used for a specific action or sight, while "of" and "on" are not standard collocations with "disgusted." Hence the correct preposition is with.
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 99archived
In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.
If she had married Mr. Gupta (1)/ she would have been (2)/ recognized as Mrs. Gupta. (3)/ No Error (4)
- A
1
- B
2
- C
3
- D
4
Show answer
D. 4The sentence follows the third conditional structure used for hypothetical past situations: If + past perfect, … would have + past participle.
Part (1) "If she had married" correctly uses the past perfect; part (2) "she would have been" correctly starts the result clause; part (3) "recognized as Mrs. Gupta" correctly completes the passive form "would have been recognized." All parts are grammatical, so the answer is No Error — option (4).
Paper & answer key PDF ↗ Question 100archived
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.
Jeopardy
- A
Angry
- B
Injure
- C
Risk
- D
Serene
Show answer
C. RiskJeopardy means danger or exposure to harm, loss, or failure (e.g., "her career is in jeopardy"). Among the options, Risk — meaning exposure to danger — carries the same sense.
"Angry" describes an emotion, "Injure" denotes the act of causing harm (not the state of danger), and "Serene" (calm) is the opposite. Hence the synonym is Risk.
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