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SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-16 · Shift 2

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

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Question 1archived

In a row of people Manu is 7th from bottom end of row. Shrey is 10 ranks above Manu. If Shrey is 8th from top end, then how many people are there in this row?

  1. A
    25
  2. B
    26
  3. C
    24
  4. D
    23
Show answer
C. 24

Step 1 — Shrey's position from the bottom: Manu is 7th from the bottom; Shrey is 10 ranks above Manu, so Shrey is \(7+10=17\)th from the bottom. Step 2 — Total using Shrey's two ranks: Shrey is 8th from the top and 17th from the bottom. \[\text{Total}=8+17-1=24\] Therefore there are 24 people in the row.

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Question 2archived

If "α" denotes "subtracted from", "β" denotes "multiplied by", "θ" denotes "added to" and "δ" denotes "divided by", then 10 θ 8 β 4 δ 8 α 9 = ?

  1. A
    7
  2. B
    5
  3. C
    9
  4. D
    11
Show answer
B. 5

Substitute the symbols: \(\theta=+\), \(\beta=\times\), \(\delta=\div\), \(\alpha=-\). The expression becomes: \[10+8\times 4\div 8-9\] Apply BODMAS (× and ÷ first, left to right): \[10+32\div 8-9=10+4-9=5\] Therefore the answer is 5.

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Question 3archived

From the given figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

On close observation, we find the question fig. is embedded in fig. (1). Hence, the answer is option 1.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 4archived

Seven years ago, the age of Sahil was equal to the present age of Nihal. Sum of Sahil's age 5 year ago and Nihal's age 6 years later is 58 years. If Ruchi is 4 years elder to Sahil, then what will be Ruchi's age (in years) after 10 years?

  1. A
    38
  2. B
    46
  3. C
    42
  4. D
    36
Show answer
B. 46

Step 1 — Form equations: Let Sahil's and Nihal's present ages be \(S\) and \(N\). Then \(S-7=N\) and \((S-5)+(N+6)=58\), i.e. \(S+N=57\). Step 2 — Solve: Substituting \(N=S-7\): \[2S-7=57\implies S=32\] Step 3 — Ruchi's age in 10 years: Ruchi is 4 years older than Sahil, so Ruchi now is \(32+4=36\). After 10 years she will be \(36+10=46\). Therefore Ruchi's age after 10 years is 46.

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Question 5archived

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Banana : Fruit :: Ginger : ?

  1. A
    Root
  2. B
    Fruit
  3. C
    Flower
  4. D
    Stem
Show answer
D. Stem

The relationship is category: a banana is botanically a fruit. Ginger is the underground rhizome of the plant — a modified stem, not a root, since it has nodes, internodes and buds. Hence Ginger : Stem.

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Question 6archived

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?

  1. A
    20
  2. B
    21
  3. C
    22
  4. D
    24
Show answer
B. 21

The differences between consecutive terms form a simple ascending pattern: \(3-1=2,\ 6-3=3,\ 10-6=4,\ 15-10=5\). So the next difference is 6. \[15+6=21\] (These are triangular numbers: \(T_n=\tfrac{n(n+1)}{2}\); \(T_6=21\).) Hence the missing number is 21.

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Question 7archived

In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Representation

  1. A
    Paint
  2. B
    Senator
  3. C
    Trees
  4. D
    Strict
Show answer
D. Strict

The letters available in REPRESENTATION are R, E, P, S, N, T, A, I, O (no C). Paint (P, A, I, N, T), Senator (S, E, N, A, T, O, R) and Trees (T, R, E, E, S) can all be formed from these letters. Strict requires the letter C, which does not occur in REPRESENTATION. Hence Strict cannot be formed.

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Question 8archived

If 9 2 A 4 2 B 3 2 = 56 and 7 2 A 2 2 B 1 2 = 44, then 11 2 A 5 2 B 7 2 = ?

  1. A
    29
  2. B
    32
  3. C
    47
  4. D
    24
Show answer
C. 47

The small "2" indicates squaring. From \(7^2\,A\,2^2\,B\,1^2=49-4-1=44\) and \(9^2\,A\,4^2\,B\,3^2=81-16-9=56\), both A and B mean subtraction. Apply to the third expression: \[11^2-5^2-7^2=121-25-49=47\] Therefore the value is 47.

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Question 9archived

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. Some girls are clever. II. All clever are hardworking. Conclusions: I. Some girls are not hardworking. II. Some girls are hardworking. III. Some hardworking are not girls.

  1. A
    Only conclusion (I) and (II) follow.
  2. B
    Only conclusion (II) follows.
  3. C
    Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.
  4. D
    All conclusions follow.
Show answer
B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

From "Some girls are clever" + "All clever are hardworking", those clever girls must also be hardworking. So Conclusion II (Some girls are hardworking) follows. Conclusion I (Some girls are not hardworking) is not guaranteed — the statements allow that all girls could be hardworking. Conclusion III (Some hardworking are not girls) is also not guaranteed — the statements do not rule out that every hardworking person is a girl. Hence only Conclusion II follows.

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Question 10archived

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. JPSW : LQUX :: MRPT : ?

  1. A
    OTVG
  2. B
    OGTU
  3. C
    OSRU
  4. D
    OPQR
Show answer
C. OSRU

Compare positions of letters in JPSW → LQUX: J(10)→L(12) is +2; P(16)→Q(17) is +1; S(19)→U(21) is +2; W(23)→X(24) is +1. The shift pattern is +2, +1, +2, +1. Apply to MRPT: M(13)+2 = O(15); R(18)+1 = S(19); P(16)+2 = R(18); T(20)+1 = U(21). Hence the answer is OSRU.

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Question 11archived

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    Trees
  2. B
    Leaves
  3. C
    Flower
  4. D
    Stem
Show answer
A. Trees

Leaves, Flower and Stem are all parts of a plant. A tree, however, is the whole plant that contains these parts. Hence the odd one out is Trees.

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Question 12archived

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 65 : 82 :: 145 : ?

  1. A
    165
  2. B
    168
  3. C
    169
  4. D
    170
Show answer
D. 170

Notice \(65=8^2+1\) and \(82=9^2+1\). So the rule is: if the first number is \(n^2+1\), the second is \((n+1)^2+1\). For 145: \(145=12^2+1\), so the partner is \(13^2+1=169+1=170\). Hence the answer is 170.

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Question 13archived

From the given options, which answer figure can be formed by folding the figure given in the question?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

From the unfolded net, the opposite-face pairs on the cube are: * opposite #, % opposite >, and $ opposite I. Figures (2), (3) and (4) each show one of these opposite pairs on adjacent faces, which is impossible. Only figure (1) keeps every opposite pair non-adjacent. Therefore the cube formed is option (1).

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Question 14archived

How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    3
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    7
  4. D
    6
Show answer
C. 7

We shall label the figure as shown below: Quadrilaterals are: 1. ABCD, 2. ADEB, 3. BDGE, 4. ABEC, 5. BDGF. 6. DGFC and 7. CEBH Therefore, total 7 Quadrilaterals as there in the given figure. Hence, the answer is 7.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 15archived

In a certain code language, "TROUPE" is written as "GILFKV" and "ERUPTION" is written as "VIFKGRLM". How is "GENIUS" written in that code language?

  1. A
    TVMRFH
  2. B
    TVMRGH
  3. C
    VIKRGH
  4. D
    TUVHRH
Show answer
A. TVMRFH

The code is the Atbash cipher: each letter maps to its mirror image in the alphabet, i.e. position \(p\) becomes position \(27-p\). Verified with T↔G (20↔7), R↔I (18↔9), etc. Apply to GENIUS: G(7)→T(20), E(5)→V(22), N(14)→M(13), I(9)→R(18), U(21)→F(6), S(19)→H(8). Hence GENIUS is coded as TVMRFH.

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Question 16archived

In the given figure, how many bottles are not brown?

Question figure
  1. A
    1, 26, 31
  2. B
    13, 26 1
  3. C
    1, 42, 26
  4. D
    42, 13, 1
Show answer
A. 1, 26, 31

Clearly, 1, 26, 31 represent the group of bottles which are not brown.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 17archived

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Waste 2. Wrong 3. Witty 4. Worcester 5. Warlike

  1. A
    51342
  2. B
    13452
  3. C
    51324
  4. D
    15342
Show answer
A. 51342

All five words begin with W; order by the second letter (a, i, o, r). Among the two 'Wa' words, compare third letters: Warlike vs Waste — 'r' precedes 's', so Warlike comes before Waste. Dictionary order: Warlike (5), Waste (1), Witty (3), Worcester (4), Wrong (2). Hence the sequence is 5, 1, 3, 4, 2.

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Question 18archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

Clearly, fig. (1) will be complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figures Hence, answer Is (1).

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 19archived

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 1 7 6 56 1 4 8 45 2 3 6 ?

  1. A
    30
  2. B
    35
  3. C
    46
  4. D
    41
Show answer
B. 35

The rule for each row: \((\text{col 1}+\text{col 2})\times\text{col 3}+(\text{col 1}+\text{col 2})\). Row 1: \((1+7)\times 6+(1+7)=48+8=56\). Row 2: \((1+4)\times 8+(1+4)=40+5=45\). Row 3: \((2+3)\times 6+(2+3)=30+5=35\). Hence the missing number is 35.

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Question 20archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

Clearly, when the sheet is unfolded, we get two circles. Hence, fig (1) is the answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 21archived

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

Clearly, (1) is the answer figure is the right image of the question figure.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 22archived

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. A, C, F, H, K, ?

  1. A
    M
  2. B
    N
  3. C
    L
  4. D
    O
Show answer
A. M

The differences between consecutive letter positions alternate +2, +3, +2, +3, +2. A \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) C \(\xrightarrow{+3}\) F \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) H \(\xrightarrow{+3}\) K \(\xrightarrow{+2}\) ? K (11) + 2 = 13 = M.

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Question 23archived

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    49 - 64
  2. B
    576 - 729
  3. C
    441 - 484
  4. D
    100 - 121
Show answer
B. 576 - 729

Three pairs are squares of consecutive integers: \(49\text{-}64=7^2\text{-}8^2\), \(441\text{-}484=21^2\text{-}22^2\), \(100\text{-}121=10^2\text{-}11^2\). However, \(576\text{-}729=24^2\text{-}27^2\) — the bases differ by 3, not 1. Hence 576 - 729 is the odd pair.

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Question 24archived

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as gives in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix - I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix - II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘E’ can be represented by 21, 44 etc. and ‘T’ can be represented by 65, 87 etc. similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘FATE’. Matrix - IMatrix - II 0123456789 0AUOEI5BFKNT 1EIAUO6TBFKN 2OEIAU7NTBFK 3UOEIA8KNTBF 4IAUOE9FKNTB

  1. A
    56, 00, 87, 11
  2. B
    96, 41, 59, 44
  3. C
    88, 12, 76, 33
  4. D
    78, 34, 98, 21
Show answer
D. 78, 34, 98, 21

Encoding is row then column. Decoding each pair in option 4: 78 → Matrix II, row 7 col 8 = F. 34 → Matrix I, row 3 col 4 = A. 98 → Matrix II, row 9 col 8 = T. 21 → Matrix I, row 2 col 1 = E. All four pairs decode to F-A-T-E, so the answer is 78, 34, 98, 21. (The other options each contain at least one mismatched code, e.g. 11 → I, 96 → K, 88 → B.)

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Question 25archived

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    CEF
  2. B
    LNO
  3. C
    RTU
  4. D
    GIK
Show answer
D. GIK

Convert each group to alphabet positions and check the gaps. CEF: 3, 5, 6 → gaps +2, +1. LNO: 12, 14, 15 → +2, +1. RTU: 18, 20, 21 → +2, +1. GIK: 7, 9, 11 → +2, +2. GIK breaks the +2, +1 pattern (it is +2, +2), so GIK is the odd group.

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Question 26archived

Which of the following is a chemical formula of quicklime?

  1. A
    Ca2O
  2. B
    Ca2CO3
  3. C
    CaO2
  4. D
    CaO
Show answer
D. CaO

Quicklime is the common name for calcium oxide, formula \(\text{CaO}\). It is produced by calcining limestone: \(\text{CaCO}_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} \text{CaO}+\text{CO}_2\). \(\text{Ca}_2\text{CO}_3\) is not a real compound (calcium carbonate is \(\text{CaCO}_3\)), and \(\text{CaO}_2\) is calcium peroxide.

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Question 27archived

Who is the author of ‘The Windfall’?

  1. A
    Manmohan Singh
  2. B
    Amitav Ghosh
  3. C
    Diksha Basu
  4. D
    Arundhati Roy
Show answer
C. Diksha Basu

Diksha Basu is the author of The Windfall (2017), a satirical novel about a Delhi family adjusting to sudden wealth after moving from East Delhi to Gurgaon. Amitav Ghosh wrote The Shadow Lines and the Ibis trilogy; Arundhati Roy wrote The God of Small Things; Manmohan Singh is an economist and former Prime Minister.

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Question 28archived

Which of the following state receives rainfall due to western disturbances?

  1. A
    Punjab
  2. B
    West Bengal
  3. C
    Kerala
  4. D
    Gujarat
Show answer
A. Punjab

Western disturbances are extra-tropical low-pressure systems that originate over the Mediterranean and travel eastward, reaching north-west India in winter (Dec-Feb). They bring rain and snow to Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, J&K and western UP, and are vital for the Rabi (wheat) crop. Kerala and West Bengal get their rain from the south-west monsoon; Gujarat too lies outside the main path of these disturbances.

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Question 29archived

Which act ended the "Trade Monopoly" of the East India Company?

  1. A
    Regulating Act of 1773
  2. B
    Pitt's India Act of 1784
  3. C
    The Charter Act of 1833
  4. D
    The Charter Act of 1813
Show answer
D. The Charter Act of 1813

The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the East India Company's trade monopoly with India and opened Indian trade to all British merchants. The Company retained only its monopoly over the China trade and the tea trade — these were ended by the Charter Act of 1833, which terminated all its commercial activities entirely. The Regulating Act (1773) and Pitt's India Act (1784) only restructured administration; they left the trade monopoly untouched.

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Question 30archived

Which country hosted the 9 th BRICS Summit in the year 2017?

  1. A
    Brazil
  2. B
    Russia
  3. C
    India
  4. D
    China
Show answer
D. China

The 9th BRICS Summit was hosted by China in Xiamen from 3-5 September 2017, with the theme "BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future". India hosted the 8th summit (Goa, 2016) and South Africa hosted the 10th (Johannesburg, 2018).

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Question 31archived

'Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan' is launched to digitally literate 6 crore rural households by __________.

  1. A
    March, 2019
  2. B
    March, 2020
  3. C
    April, 2021
  4. D
    March, 2022
Show answer
A. March, 2019

The Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA), approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2017 under the Digital India programme, aimed to make 6 crore rural households digitally literate by March 2019. It targets one member per eligible household in the 14-60 age group.

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Question 32archived

What is the name of the first Super Computer of the world?

  1. A
    CDC 6600
  2. B
    USENET
  3. C
    COMODOR VIC/20
  4. D
    PARAM - 10000
Show answer
A. CDC 6600

The CDC 6600, designed by Seymour Cray at Control Data Corporation and released in 1964, is regarded as the world's first successful supercomputer, achieving about 3 megaFLOPS. USENET is a discussion network (1980), Commodore VIC-20 is an early home computer (1980), and PARAM-10000 is an Indian supercomputer developed by C-DAC in 1998.

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Question 33archived

Who was the pioneer of Chipko movement of 1973?

  1. A
    Sambaji
  2. B
    Baba Amte
  3. C
    Sunderlal Bahuguna
  4. D
    Medha Patkar
Show answer
C. Sunderlal Bahuguna

The Chipko movement began in 1973 in the Mandal village of Chamoli district (then Uttar Pradesh, now Uttarakhand), where villagers hugged trees to stop contractors from felling them. Sunderlal Bahuguna, a Gandhian environmentalist, is recognised as its pioneer and chief spokesperson; his slogan "Ecology is permanent economy" carried the movement nationally. Medha Patkar led the Narmada Bachao Andolan, and Baba Amte worked on leprosy rehabilitation and later joined the Narmada movement.

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Question 34archived

Match the following: Battles Year 1. Battle of Buxar a. 1576 2. Battle of Plassey b. 1764 3. Battle of Haldighati c. 1757

  1. A
    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a
  2. B
    1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a
  3. C
    1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c
  4. D
    1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b
Show answer
B. 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a

Pairing each battle with its year: Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764 (1 - b); Battle of Plassey in 1757 (2 - c); Battle of Haldighati in 1576 (3 - a). Hence the correct match is 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a.

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Question 35archived

With which country has India signed an agreement for assistance in green and sustainable construction of infrastructure in the Himalayan Kingdom in December, 2016?

  1. A
    Nepal
  2. B
    Afghanistan
  3. C
    Bhutan
  4. D
    Pakistan
Show answer
C. Bhutan

In December 2016, India and Bhutan signed an agreement under which India would assist Bhutan in the green and sustainable construction of infrastructure in the Himalayan Kingdom. The pact reflected the long-standing India-Bhutan development partnership and Bhutan's carbon-neutral commitments. Nepal, Afghanistan and Pakistan had no comparable agreement of this description in that month.

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Question 36archived

Which tax causes a burden on the poorer section of the society?

  1. A
    Direct Tax
  2. B
    Indirect Tax
  3. C
    Both Direct and Indirect Tax
  4. D
    None of these
Show answer
B. Indirect Tax

Indirect taxes (sales tax, GST, VAT) are levied at a uniform rate on goods and services, so every consumer pays the same percentage on a purchase regardless of income. Since poorer households spend a much larger share of their income on consumption than richer ones (who save and invest more), the same tax takes a bigger bite out of low incomes. This regressive nature places the heavier real burden on the poor. Direct taxes (income tax, property tax) are typically progressive, with rates rising with income and exemptions for low earners, so they fall more on the wealthy.

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Question 37archived

Why does Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats both receive sufficient rainfall but Deccan Plateau receives scanty rainfall?

  1. A
    It is a rain shadow area
  2. B
    It is located parallel to wind direction
  3. C
    It is away from the coast
  4. D
    Rain bearing clouds are absent
Show answer
A. It is a rain shadow area

Moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea strike the Western Ghats, are forced to rise, cool, and drop heavy orographic rainfall on the windward (western) slopes. After crossing the Ghats, the winds descend on the leeward side; descending air warms and its moisture-holding capacity rises, so very little precipitation occurs. The Deccan Plateau lies on this leeward side and therefore falls in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats. The Eastern Ghats receive rain from the retreating north-east monsoon as well, but the plateau between them stays dry.

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Question 38archived

Which one of the following is not a type of coal?

  1. A
    Anthracite
  2. B
    Lignite
  3. C
    Peat
  4. D
    Siderite
Show answer
D. Siderite

Coal is a sedimentary rock formed from compacted plant matter; its grades, in increasing order of carbon content, are Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite. Anthracite, Lignite and Peat are therefore all stages/types of coal. Siderite is an iron carbonate mineral (\(\text{FeCO}_3\)) — an iron ore, not a coal. Hence Siderite is the odd one out.

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Question 39archived

In 2017 Australian Open, Serena Williams defeated her sister Venus Williams to win the ______ Grand Slam Singles title of her career.

  1. A
    23rd
  2. B
    18th
  3. C
    26th
  4. D
    20th
Show answer
A. 23rd

At the 2017 Australian Open final, Serena Williams beat sister Venus Williams 6–4, 6–4 to claim her 23rd Grand Slam singles title. This victory took her past Steffi Graf’s 22 and made her the most-decorated singles champion of the Open Era, second only to Margaret Court’s 24 overall.

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Question 40archived

Which Indian state hosted the 3 days long 'International Yoga Fest' held from 8th to 10th March, 2017?

  1. A
    Uttar Pradesh
  2. B
    Madhya Pradesh
  3. C
    Maharashtra
  4. D
    Delhi
Show answer
D. Delhi

The 3-day International Yoga Fest, organised by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga under the Ministry of AYUSH, was held from 8–10 March 2017 at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi. The capital hosted yoga gurus and delegates from across the world ahead of the International Day of Yoga.

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Question 41archived

Fog, clouds, mist are examples of _______.

  1. A
    Aerosol
  2. B
    Solid sol
  3. C
    Foam
  4. D
    Gel
Show answer
A. Aerosol

A colloid in which the dispersion medium is a gas and the dispersed phase is a liquid or solid is called an aerosol. Fog and mist are tiny liquid water droplets suspended in air; clouds are droplets or ice crystals in air — all fit the liquid/solid-in-gas pattern of an aerosol. Solid sol is solid-in-solid (coloured glass); foam is gas-in-liquid (shaving cream); gel is liquid-in-solid (jelly) — none match.

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Question 42archived

In which of the following part of the cell does the pyruvic acid is broken down into carbon dioxide, water and energy?

  1. A
    Cytoplasm
  2. B
    Nucleus
  3. C
    Mitochondria
  4. D
    Chloroplast
Show answer
C. Mitochondria

Glycolysis splits glucose into pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate enters the mitochondria, where it is converted to acetyl-CoA and oxidised through the Krebs cycle (matrix) and the electron transport chain (inner membrane). These mitochondrial steps release \(\text{CO}_2\), produce \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) via oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and generate the bulk of the ATP. Hence mitochondria — the ‘powerhouse of the cell’ — are the site of pyruvate’s complete breakdown.

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Question 43archived

What is plant cell wall mainly composed of?

  1. A
    Lipids
  2. B
    Vitamin
  3. C
    Cellulose
  4. D
    Protein
Show answer
C. Cellulose

The plant cell wall is chiefly built of cellulose, a polysaccharide of glucose units linked by β-1,4 glycosidic bonds. These long chains aggregate into microfibrils that give the wall its tensile strength and rigidity. Lipids form the plasma membrane, proteins serve enzymatic/structural roles in minor amounts, and vitamins are not structural at all — so cellulose is the principal constituent.

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Question 44archived

After which five year plan, 'The Rolling Plan' was implemented?

  1. A
    Third Plan
  2. B
    Fifth Plan
  3. C
    Seventh Plan
  4. D
    Ninth Plan
Show answer
B. Fifth Plan

The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79) was cut short in 1978 by the new Janata government. Economist D. T. Lakdawala then introduced the Rolling Plan (1978–80), which combined an annual plan with three- to five-year and longer perspective plans, revised each year. It was scrapped in 1980 when the Sixth Plan began. Hence the Rolling Plan came right after the Fifth Plan.

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Question 45archived

Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament?

  1. A
    Amendment in Fundamental Rights
  2. B
    Creation of New States
  3. C
    Abolition of Legislative Councils in State
  4. D
    Rules and Procedures in Parliament
Show answer
A. Amendment in Fundamental Rights

Under Article 368, an amendment to the Fundamental Rights (Part III) requires a special majority — a majority of the total membership of each House plus a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. By contrast, the creation of new states (Articles 3–4), abolition or creation of State Legislative Councils (Article 169) and parliamentary rules of procedure (Article 118) need only a simple majority. Hence the amendment of Fundamental Rights is the option needing a special majority.

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Question 46archived

Which of the following pair is INCORRECT? I. Parsec - Distance II. Barrel - Liquid III. Light year – Time

  1. A
    Only III
  2. B
    Only I and III
  3. C
    Only II
  4. D
    All are correct
Show answer
A. Only III

A parsec is a unit of astronomical distance (~3.26 light-years), so I is correct. A barrel is a unit of volume, commonly used for liquids such as crude oil (1 barrel = 42 US gallons ≈ 159 L), so II is correct. A light year is the distance light travels in vacuum in one year (\(\approx 9.46\times 10^{15}\) m); despite the word ‘year’ in its name, it measures distance, not time. Hence only pair III is incorrect.

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Question 47archived

Edward Jenner discovered vaccine for which of the following disease?

  1. A
    Polio
  2. B
    Tuberculosis
  3. C
    Small Pox
  4. D
    Rabies
Show answer
C. Small Pox

In 1796, English physician Edward Jenner observed that milkmaids who caught cowpox did not get smallpox. He inoculated 8-year-old James Phipps with cowpox material from Sarah Nelmes, and the boy remained immune when later exposed to smallpox. This was the first successful vaccine, and the word ‘vaccine’ itself comes from vacca (Latin for cow). Polio vaccines came from Salk/Sabin, rabies from Pasteur, and TB’s BCG from Calmette & Guérin.

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Question 48archived

What is the SI unit of Power?

  1. A
    Boyle
  2. B
    Watt
  3. C
    Newton
  4. D
    Pascal
Show answer
B. Watt

Power is the rate of doing work: \(P=\dfrac{W}{t}\). With work in joules and time in seconds, the SI unit of power is joule per second, given the special name watt (W), where \(1\,\text{W}=1\,\text{J/s}\). Newton is the SI unit of force, pascal of pressure, and ‘Boyle’ is not an SI unit at all.

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Question 49archived

Which article was referred to as the 'the heart and soul' of the constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?

  1. A
    Article 4
  2. B
    Article 32
  3. C
    Article 28
  4. D
    Article 30
Show answer
B. Article 32

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution. It guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, letting any citizen move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Without this enforceability the other Fundamental Rights would be mere paper guarantees, which is why Ambedkar accorded it pride of place.

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Question 50archived

Who was awarded with the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2017?

  1. A
    Yash Chopra
  2. B
    Kamini Kaushal
  3. C
    Shatrughan Sinha
  4. D
    Moushumi Chatterjee
Show answer
C. Shatrughan Sinha

At the 62nd Filmfare Awards held on 14 January 2017, the Lifetime Achievement Award was conferred on veteran actor Shatrughan Sinha for his decades-long contribution to Hindi cinema across hits such as Kalicharan, Dostana and Shaan. Yash Chopra (2006), Kamini Kaushal and Moushumi Chatterjee were honoured in different years.

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Question 51archived

For what value of X, 211X will be a perfect square?

  1. A
    4
  2. B
    5
  3. C
    6
  4. D
    9
Show answer
C. 6

A perfect square ending in 6 must have a square root ending in 4 or 6. Since \(45^2=2025\) and \(47^2=2209\), the only candidate in the range 2110–2119 is \(46^2\). \[46^2=2116\] Hence the number is 2116, giving X = 6. Checking the other options: \(2114, 2115, 2119\) are not perfect squares (none equals \(42^2, 45^2, 47^2,\) or \(48^2\)).

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Question 52archived

In the given figure ST || RP, then what is the value (in degree) of supplementary angle of y?

Question figure
  1. A
    10
  2. B
    60
  3. C
    100
  4. D
    170
Show answer
C. 100

Calculation: Using angle sum property in triangle PQR ⇒ 3x + 2x + 4x = 180 ⇒ 9x = 180 ⇒ x = 20 Let the point where PQ intersects TS be A ∠(QAS) = ∠(RPQ) (∵ PR || TS) Using angle sum property in triangle QSA ⇒ 3x + y + 2x = 180 ⇒ Supplementary of y = 180 - y = 5x = 5 × 20 = 100 ∴ The measure of supplementary of y is 100

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Question 53archived

ΔPQR has sides PQ and PR measuring 983 and 893 units respectively. How many such triangles are possible with all integral sides?

  1. A
    1876
  2. B
    90
  3. C
    1785
  4. D
    1786
Show answer
C. 1785

By the triangle inequality, the third side \(x\) must satisfy: \[|983-893| \lt x \lt 983+893 \;\Rightarrow\; 90 \lt x \lt 1876\] Since \(x\) is an integer, \(x\in\{91,92,\dots,1875\}\). Number of integer values \(=1875-91+1=\textbf{1785}\).

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Question 54archived

How many runs has the player scored against Pakistan?

  1. A
    272
  2. B
    192
  3. C
    256
  4. D
    144
Show answer
B. 192

Runs scored against Pakistan can be given as 12% of 1600 = 12 × 1600/100 = 192 ∴ Runs scored against Pakistan are 192

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Question 55archived

The difference between the runs scored against England and Pakistan is same as the difference between which of the following two countries?

  1. A
    South Africa and Sri Lanka
  2. B
    South Africa and New Zealand
  3. C
    Australia and Sri Lanka
  4. D
    Australia and New Zealand
Show answer
D. Australia and New Zealand

Difference between the runs scored against England and Pakistan = 21% - 12% = 9% Which is same as that of Australia and New Zealand = 25% - 16% = 9% ∴ The answer is Australia and New Zealand

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Question 56archived

If a = 73, b = 74 and c = 75, then what is the value of a 3+ b 3+ c 3 - 3abc?

  1. A
    365
  2. B
    444
  3. C
    666
  4. D
    999
Show answer
C. 666

Use the identity: \[a^3+b^3+c^3-3abc=\tfrac{1}{2}(a+b+c)\big[(a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2\big]\] Step 1 — Sum and differences: \(a+b+c=73+74+75=222\); \((a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2=1+1+4=6\). Step 2 — Substitute: \[\tfrac{1}{2}(222)(6)=111\times 6=\mathbf{666}\]

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Question 57archived

What is the difference in runs scored by the player against Australia and Sri Lanka?

  1. A
    256
  2. B
    128
  3. C
    114
  4. D
    80
Show answer
A. 256

Difference between the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka = 25% - 9% = 16% Difference between the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka = 16% of 1600 = 256 ∴ The difference in the runs scored against Australia and Sri Lanka is 256 runs

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Question 58archived

Difference between the total runs scored against Australia and New Zealand and the total runs scored against Sri Lanka and Pakistan make what sectorial angle (in degrees) in the pie chart?

  1. A
    90
  2. B
    144
  3. C
    36
  4. D
    72
Show answer
D. 72

Total Runs scored by Australia and New Zealand = 25% + 16% = 41% Total Runs scored by Sri Lanka and Pakistan = 12% + 9% = 21% Difference Between them is 41% - 21% = 20% Angle can be given as ⇒ 20 × 360/100 = 72 ∴ The angle subtended by sector is 72

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Question 59archived

If the cost price of 48 articles is equal to the selling price of 32 articles, then what is the profit percentage?

  1. A
    20
  2. B
    25
  3. C
    50
  4. D
    75
Show answer
C. 50

If CP of 48 articles equals SP of 32 articles, then \(48\,\text{CP}=32\,\text{SP}\), so: \[\frac{\text{SP}}{\text{CP}}=\frac{48}{32}=\frac{3}{2}\] Taking CP = 2 and SP = 3, profit = 1 and: \[\text{Profit \%}=\frac{1}{2}\times100=\mathbf{50\%}\] Shortcut: when CP of \(x\) = SP of \(y\), profit% \(=\frac{x-y}{y}\times100=\frac{16}{32}\times100=50\%\).

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Question 60archived

The marked price of an article is 40% more than its cost price. If 15% discount is given on the marked price, then what will be the profit percentage?

  1. A
    25
  2. B
    15
  3. C
    21
  4. D
    19
Show answer
D. 19

Let CP = Rs 100. Step 1 — Marked Price (40% above CP): \[\text{MP}=100\times 1.40=140\] Step 2 — Selling Price after 15% discount: \[\text{SP}=140\times 0.85=119\] Step 3 — Profit %: \(\text{SP}-\text{CP}=19\), so profit = 19%. Compact form: \(1.40\times 0.85=1.19\Rightarrow 19\%\) profit.

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Question 61archived

The average of 8 consecutive natural numbers is 38.5. What is the largest of these 8 numbers?

  1. A
    41
  2. B
    39
  3. C
    42
  4. D
    45
Show answer
C. 42

For consecutive numbers, the average equals the mean of the middle terms. The sum is: \[S=38.5\times 8=308\] Let the numbers be \(n, n+1,\dots, n+7\). Then: \[8n+28=308 \;\Rightarrow\; n=35\] So the numbers are 35, 36, ..., 42. The largest is 42.

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Question 62archived

2 men or 3 women can complete a job in 96 days. Then 6 men and 7 women will complete the same job in how many days?

  1. A
    18
  2. B
    27
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    24
Show answer
A. 18

Step 1 — Equivalence: Since 2 men \(\equiv\) 3 women, 1 man \(\equiv \tfrac{3}{2}\) women, so 6 men \(\equiv 9\) women. Total workforce \(=9+7=16\) equivalent women. Step 2 — Total work: 3 women take 96 days, so total work \(=3\times 96=288\) woman-days. Step 3 — Time required: \[T=\frac{288}{16}=\mathbf{18}\text{ days}\]

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Question 63archived

After deducting 12% from a certain sum and then deducting 25% from the remainder, 2508 is left, then what is the initial sum?

  1. A
    3500
  2. B
    3450
  3. C
    3970
  4. D
    3800
Show answer
D. 3800

After successive deductions of 12% and 25%, the fraction left is: \[0.88\times 0.75=0.66\] So \(0.66\,S=2508\), giving: \[S=\frac{2508}{0.66}=\mathbf{3800}\] Check: 12% of 3800 = 456; remainder 3344. 25% of 3344 = 836; remainder 2508. ✔

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Question 64archived

Two trains are moving in the opposite direction at speed of 30 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively, whose lengths are 450 m and 550 m respectively. What is the time taken (in seconds) by slower train to cross the faster train?

  1. A
    48
  2. B
    54
  3. C
    62
  4. D
    72
Show answer
A. 48

Trains move in opposite directions, so their relative speed is the sum: \[v=(30+45)\text{ km/h}=75\times\tfrac{5}{18}=\tfrac{125}{6}\text{ m/s}\] The distance to fully cross is the sum of lengths: \(450+550=1000\) m. \[t=\frac{1000}{125/6}=1000\times\frac{6}{125}=\mathbf{48}\text{ s}\]

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Question 65archived

If x - (1/x) = 3, then what is the value of (2x 4+ 3x 3+ 13x 2 - 3x + 2)/(3x 4+ 3)?

  1. A
    1/3
  2. B
    2/3
  3. C
    4/3
  4. D
    5/3
Show answer
C. 4/3

Step 1 — From the given: Squaring \(x-\tfrac{1}{x}=3\) gives \(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}=11\). Step 2 — Divide numerator and denominator by \(x^2\): \[\frac{2x^2+\tfrac{2}{x^2}+3x-\tfrac{3}{x}+13}{3\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)}=\frac{2\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)+3\left(x-\tfrac{1}{x}\right)+13}{3\left(x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}\right)}\] Step 3 — Substitute: \[\frac{2(11)+3(3)+13}{3(11)}=\frac{44}{33}=\mathbf{\tfrac{4}{3}}\]

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Question 66archived

If x 2+ (1/x 2) = 31/9 and x > 0, then what is the value of x 3+ (1/x 3)?

  1. A
    70/9
  2. B
    154/27
  3. C
    349/27
  4. D
    349/7
Show answer
B. 154/27

Step 1 — Find \(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\): From \(\left(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\right)^2=x^2+\tfrac{1}{x^2}+2\): \[\left(x+\tfrac{1}{x}\right)^2=\tfrac{31}{9}+2=\tfrac{49}{9}\] Since \(x>0\), \(x+\tfrac{1}{x}=\tfrac{7}{3}\). Step 2 — Apply \(a^3+b^3=(a+b)^3-3(a+b)\): \[x^3+\tfrac{1}{x^3}=\left(\tfrac{7}{3}\right)^3-3\left(\tfrac{7}{3}\right)=\tfrac{343}{27}-7=\mathbf{\tfrac{154}{27}}\]

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Question 67archived

What is the value of \(\frac{{{x^2} - 5x + 6}}{{{x^2} - 3x + 2}} \div \frac{{{x^2} - 7x + 12}}{{{x^2} - 5x + 4}}\) ?

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    (x - 2)/(x - 1)
  4. D
    x + 3)/(x + 1)
Show answer
A. 1

Factor each quadratic: \(x^2-5x+6=(x-2)(x-3)\); \(x^2-3x+2=(x-1)(x-2)\); \(x^2-7x+12=(x-3)(x-4)\); \(x^2-5x+4=(x-1)(x-4)\). Rewriting division as multiplication by the reciprocal: \[\frac{(x-2)(x-3)}{(x-1)(x-2)}\times\frac{(x-1)(x-4)}{(x-3)(x-4)}=\mathbf{1}\] All factors cancel.

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Question 68archived

What is the simplified value of sec 6A - tan 6A - 3 sec 2A tan 2A?

  1. A
    -1
  2. B
    0
  3. C
    1
  4. D
    sec A tan A
Show answer
C. 1

Let \(a=\sec^2A\), \(b=\tan^2A\). Using \(a^3-b^3=(a-b)^3+3ab(a-b)\): \[\sec^6A-\tan^6A=(\sec^2A-\tan^2A)^3+3\sec^2A\tan^2A(\sec^2A-\tan^2A)\] Since \(\sec^2A-\tan^2A=1\), this equals \(1+3\sec^2A\tan^2A\). Therefore: \[\sec^6A-\tan^6A-3\sec^2A\tan^2A=1+3\sec^2A\tan^2A-3\sec^2A\tan^2A=\mathbf{1}\]

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Question 69archived

A person lent certain sum of money at 10% per annum simple interest. In 20 years the interest amounted to Rs 500 more than the sum lent. What was the sum lent (in Rs)?

  1. A
    200
  2. B
    500
  3. C
    1000
  4. D
    250
Show answer
B. 500

Using \(\text{SI}=\dfrac{P\cdot R\cdot T}{100}\) with the condition SI = P + 500: \[P+500=\frac{P\times 10\times 20}{100}=2P\] Solving: \(P=\mathbf{500}\). Check: SI on Rs 500 at 10% for 20 years = Rs 1000, which is Rs 500 more than the principal. ✔

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Question 70archived

Three partners A, B and C share profit such that three times the share of A is equal to two times the share of B and equal to 12 times the share of C. What is the ratio of the profits of A, B and C respectively

  1. A
    3 : 2 : 12
  2. B
    12 : 2 : 3
  3. C
    4 : 6 : 1
  4. D
    1 : 6 : 4
Show answer
C. 4 : 6 : 1

Let \(3A=2B=12C=k\). Then: \[A=\tfrac{k}{3},\quad B=\tfrac{k}{2},\quad C=\tfrac{k}{12}\] So \(A:B:C=\tfrac{1}{3}:\tfrac{1}{2}:\tfrac{1}{12}\). Multiplying through by LCM(3,2,12) = 12: \[A:B:C=\mathbf{4:6:1}\] Verification: \(3(4)=2(6)=12(1)=12\). ✔

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Question 71archived

In the given figure, TB passes through centre O. What is the radius of the circle?

Question figure
  1. A
    (2√5)/3
  2. B
    (3√2)/5
  3. C
    (3√5)/2
  4. D
    (2√3)/5
Show answer
C. (3√5)/2

From the property of circle we know that ⇒ TP 2= AP × (PB) ⇒ 4(x + 4) = 6 2= 36 ⇒ x = 5 ----(i) Now join TA, in triangle TAP, using Pythagoras theorem since ∠TAP is 90 ⇒ TP 2= TA 2+ PA 2 ⇒ TA = √(6 2- 4 2) ⇒ TA = 2√5 ----(ii) In triangle TAB, using Pythagoras theorem since ∠TAB is 90 ⇒ TB 2= TA 2+ BA 2Using (i) and (ii) ⇒ TB = 2 ×radius = √(2√5 2+ 5 2) = 3√5 ⇒ radius = (3√5)/2 ∴ The radius of the circle is (3√5)/2

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Question 72archived

If the radius of the cylinder is decreased by 20%, then by how much percent the height must be increased, so that the volume of the cylinder remains same?

  1. A
    20
  2. B
    36.25
  3. C
    56.25
  4. D
    65
Show answer
C. 56.25

Volume of a cylinder is \(V=\pi r^2 h\). For volume to stay constant, \(r^2 h\) must remain the same. Step 1 — New radius: \(r_2=0.8\,r_1\), so \(r_2^2=0.64\,r_1^2=\tfrac{16}{25}r_1^2\). Step 2 — Solve for new height: \[r_1^2 h_1=\tfrac{16}{25}r_1^2\,h_2 \implies h_2=\tfrac{25}{16}h_1\] Step 3 — Percentage increase: \[\frac{h_2-h_1}{h_1}\times 100=\left(\tfrac{25}{16}-1\right)\times 100=\tfrac{9}{16}\times 100=56.25\%\] Therefore the height must be increased by 56.25%.

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Question 73archived

What is the simplified value of (cosec A - sin A)(sec A - cos A)(tan A + cot A)?

  1. A
    -1
  2. B
    0
  3. C
    1
  4. D
    2
Show answer
C. 1

Convert each bracket to sine and cosine using the identity \(\sin^2 A+\cos^2 A=1\). Step 1 — Simplify each bracket: \[\operatorname{cosec} A-\sin A=\frac{1-\sin^2 A}{\sin A}=\frac{\cos^2 A}{\sin A}\] \[\sec A-\cos A=\frac{1-\cos^2 A}{\cos A}=\frac{\sin^2 A}{\cos A}\] \[\tan A+\cot A=\frac{\sin^2 A+\cos^2 A}{\sin A\cos A}=\frac{1}{\sin A\cos A}\] Step 2 — Multiply: \[\frac{\cos^2 A}{\sin A}\cdot\frac{\sin^2 A}{\cos A}\cdot\frac{1}{\sin A\cos A}=\frac{\sin^2 A\cos^2 A}{\sin^2 A\cos^2 A}=1\] Therefore the simplified value is 1.

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Question 74archived

In the given figure, PQR is a triangle in which, PQ = 24 cm, PR = 12 cm and altitude PS = 8 cm. If PT is the diameter of the circumcircle, what will be the length (in cm) of the circum-radius?

Question figure
  1. A
    15
  2. B
    18
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    21
Show answer
B. 18

If a, b, and c are the three sides of a triangle, then the circum-radius ‘R’ is given as, R = abc/4A Where A = area of triangle = (base × height)/2 Given, height = 8 cm Let base = QR = x cm ⇒ Area of triangle = A = 8x/2 = 4x The other two sides of triangle are of lengths 24 cm and 12 cm, ∴ Circum-radius of triangle = (24 × 12 × x)/(4 × 4x) = 18 cm

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Question 75archived

What is the simplified value of (cos 4A - sin 4A)?

  1. A
    0
  2. B
    2 cos 2A
  3. C
    cos 2A
  4. D
    1
Show answer
C. cos 2A

Apply difference of squares to \(\cos^4 A-\sin^4 A\): \[\cos^4 A-\sin^4 A=(\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A)(\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A)\] Using \(\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A=1\) and the double-angle identity \(\cos 2A=\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A\): \[=\cos 2A\cdot 1=\cos 2A\] Therefore the simplified value is cos 2A.

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Question 76archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. That which is away from a center

  1. A
    Eccentric
  2. B
    Eclectic
  3. C
    Ellipsis
  4. D
    Equine
Show answer
A. Eccentric

Eccentric literally means "off-centre" — deviating from a central point (used both geometrically for non-circular orbits and figuratively for unconventional behaviour). This matches "away from a centre". "Eclectic" means drawn from diverse sources; "ellipsis" is the omission mark (...); "equine" relates to horses — none touch the idea of a centre.

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Question 77archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P- Epistemological idealists (such as Kant) might insist that the only things which can be directly known for certain are ideas. Q- The approach to idealism by Western philosophers has been different to that of Eastern thinkers. R- In much of Western thought (though not in such major Western thinkers as Plato and Hegel) the ideal relates to direct knowledge of subjective mental ideas, or images. S- It is then usually juxtaposed with realism in which the real is said to have an absolute existence prior to and independent of our knowledge.

  1. A
    RQPS
  2. B
    PQSR
  3. C
    PRQS
  4. D
    QRSP
Show answer
D. QRSP

Sentence Q is the only general opener — it introduces the Western-vs-Eastern contrast on idealism. R follows by elaborating "In much of Western thought…", developing Q. S uses "It is then usually juxtaposed with realism", where "It" refers to Western idealism just defined in R. P closes with a specific instance (Kant's epistemological idealism). Hence the order is QRSP.

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Question 78archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. Karnataka grows coffee

  1. A
    Coffee is being grown in Karnataka.
  2. B
    Coffee grown in Karnataka.
  3. C
    Coffee is grown in Karnataka.
  4. D
    Let the coffee be grown in Karnataka.
Show answer
C. Coffee is grown in Karnataka.

The active sentence "Karnataka grows coffee" is in the simple present tense. The passive form is object + is/am/are + past participle (+ by/in agent). Object "coffee" (singular) becomes subject; "grows" becomes "is grown"; "Karnataka" (a place) takes the preposition "in". This gives "Coffee is grown in Karnataka." Option 1 is present continuous (wrong tense); option 2 is a fragment; option 4 is an imperative passive.

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Question 79archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. Gopal's mother reminded him to take his wallet.

  1. A
    “Are you going to take your wallet or not?” said Gopal to his mother.
  2. B
    “Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal” said his mother.
  3. C
    Gopal's mother said, “Remember your wallet, Gopal?
  4. D
    “Here is your wallet Gopal” said his mother.
Show answer
B. “Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal” said his mother.

The reporting verb "reminded … to take" in indirect speech signals that the original direct speech was a reminder/negative imperative about not forgetting the wallet. Option 2, "Don't forget to take your wallet, Gopal," said his mother, fits exactly: the imperative converts to the infinitive "to take", "your" becomes "his", and vocative "Gopal" becomes object "him". Option 1 is a question by Gopal; option 3 is also interrogative; option 4 is a statement of fact, not a reminder.

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Question 80archived

Organization are institutions in which members compete for status and _____.

  1. A
    growth
  2. B
    money
  3. C
    power
  4. D
    success
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C. power

The passage explicitly mentions later "power to influence the activities of others", echoing the first blank. The pairing "status and power" is the standard collocation for what members compete for in organizations. "Growth" and "success" are outcomes, not direct objects of competition alongside status; "money" is too narrow given the wider talk of resources, advancement and influence.

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Question 81archived

They _____ for the resources

  1. A
    compete
  2. B
    expand
  3. C
    rely
  4. D
    run
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A. compete

The blank takes "_____ for the resources", a verb that pairs with "for". The preceding sentence establishes the theme of members competing for status and power, so the natural continuation is that they also compete for resources. "Expand", "rely" and "run" do not collocate naturally with "for the resources" in this context.

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Question 82archived

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. If (you will approach) her sincerely, she will listen to your problem definitely.

  1. A
    you approach
  2. B
    you are approaching
  3. C
    you will be approaching
  4. D
    No improvement
Show answer
A. you approach

This is a first conditional sentence: If + simple present, … will + base verb. The main clause "she will listen" already uses "will", so the if-clause must be in the simple present. "You will approach" wrongly puts "will" in the if-clause. The correct improvement is "you approach". Options 2 and 3 use continuous tenses that don't fit a general future condition.

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Question 83archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Rise like a phoenix

  1. A
    Something memorable
  2. B
    Time to answer for one's action
  3. C
    To become successful again
  4. D
    To make people happy
Show answer
C. To become successful again

The idiom "rise like a phoenix" comes from the myth of the phoenix — a bird that burns to ashes and is reborn from them. Figuratively, it means to recover from failure or ruin and become successful again. "Something memorable", "time to answer for one's action" and "to make people happy" do not capture the core idea of rebirth and renewed success.

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Question 84archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. One who values practicality

  1. A
    Apotheosis
  2. B
    Pliable
  3. C
    Pragmatist
  4. D
    Realist
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C. Pragmatist

A pragmatist is, by definition, a person who deals with things sensibly and realistically, guided by practical considerations rather than theory — a direct match for "one who values practicality". "Apotheosis" means the highest point or deification; "pliable" means easily bent or influenced; "realist" describes someone who accepts things as they are, but does not specifically denote valuing practicality as a guiding principle.

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Question 85archived

of the organization, for example, _____ to expand

  1. A
    finance
  2. B
    infrastructure
  3. C
    resources
  4. D
    source
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A. finance

The blank needs a resource used "to expand their own departments". Finance (money/funding) is the resource departments most directly need to grow — to hire, equip and run projects. "Resources" is already used in the previous clause (redundant); "infrastructure" and "source" don't naturally collocate with "to expand their own departments" as the means of expansion.

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Question 86archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P- A sensitive mind easily absorbs the vibrations emanating from the thought of the people it associates with. Q- We often say that a person is known by the company he keeps. R- The violent can be made calm by exuding thought of love and compassion. S- Visits to holy places are considered good because the good thoughts of the holy people gathered there and the ensuing vibrations definitely affect one in a positive fashion.

  1. A
    RQPS
  2. B
    QRSP
  3. C
    PQRS
  4. D
    SRQP
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A. RQPS

Sentence R opens by stating a striking effect of thought ("violent can be made calm…"), inviting elaboration. Q follows with the familiar proverb "a person is known by the company he keeps", generalising R's idea about influence. P then explains the underlying mechanism — a sensitive mind absorbs vibrations from associates' thoughts. S closes with a confirming example: holy places give positive vibrations. Hence the order is RQPS.

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Question 87archived

their own departments, for _____ advancement and

  1. A
    career
  2. B
    financial
  3. C
    regional
  4. D
    technological
Show answer
A. career

The blank modifies "advancement" in the context of what employees compete for inside an organization. The standard collocation is career advancement — promotion and progress in one's professional path. "Financial", "regional" and "technological" advancement don't fit the personal-progress theme already established by competition for status, resources and power.

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Question 88archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Fabulous
  2. B
    Gorgeous
  3. C
    Heterogeneous
  4. D
    Inocuous
Show answer
D. Inocuous

The correct spelling of the word meaning "not harmful or offensive" is Innocuous (with a double 'n'), derived from Latin in- (not) + nocere (to harm). "Inocuous" omits one 'n' and is therefore misspelt. Fabulous, Gorgeous, and Heterogeneous are all spelt correctly. Hence the incorrectly spelt word is Inocuous.

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Question 89archived

for power to _____ the activities of others.

  1. A
    affect
  2. B
    control
  3. C
    curb
  4. D
    pursue
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B. control

The blank requires a verb describing what power lets one do with others' activities. Control means to direct or regulate actions, which is exactly how power is exercised within an organisation. "Affect" is too weak and vague; "curb" narrows it to restraint only; "pursue" (to chase) is contextually unsuitable. Hence the completed phrase reads "for power to control the activities of others."

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Question 90archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Damp squib

  1. A
    Complete failure
  2. B
    Complete knowledge
  3. C
    To motivate
  4. D
    To squander money
Show answer
A. Complete failure

A "squib" is a small firework; when damp it fails to ignite, fizzling out instead of exploding. The idiom damp squib therefore describes something that was expected to be impressive but turned out to be a complete failure or anticlimax. "Complete knowledge", "to motivate" and "to squander money" bear no relation to the idiom's sense of disappointing outcome.

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Question 91archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Phlegmatic

  1. A
    Ardent
  2. B
    Indifferent
  3. C
    Prohibit
  4. D
    Merciless
Show answer
A. Ardent

Phlegmatic means calm, unemotional, and not easily excited. Its opposite must describe strong feeling or passion. Ardent means passionate, enthusiastic, and full of fervour — the direct antonym. "Indifferent" is a near-synonym (both imply lack of feeling); "Prohibit" is a verb meaning to forbid; "Merciless" means cruel — neither contrasts with calmness. Hence the antonym is Ardent.

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Question 92archived

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. The mobile phones have made digital cameras a little (superfluous) in today's world.

  1. A
    extinct
  2. B
    obsolete
  3. C
    redundancy
  4. D
    No improvement
Show answer
B. obsolete

The sentence needs an adjective conveying that digital cameras have become outdated due to smartphone cameras. Obsolete means "no longer produced or used; out of date," precisely capturing this technological displacement. "Extinct" overstates — digital cameras still exist; "Redundancy" is a noun and grammatically wrong here; "Superfluous" (the original) means merely "extra," missing the nuance of being superseded. Hence obsolete is the correct improvement.

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Question 93archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Pedestrain
  2. B
    Plaintiff
  3. C
    Potatoes
  4. D
    Potassium
Show answer
A. Pedestrain

The correct spelling is Pedestrian (ending in -ian, meaning a person who walks). The option "Pedestrain" swaps the order to -ain, making it misspelt. Plaintiff, Potatoes, and Potassium are all spelt correctly. Hence the incorrectly spelt word is Pedestrain.

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Question 94archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. The CEO only discussed (1)/ the new venture (2)/ with his manager. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
A. 1

The focusing adverb "only" must sit immediately before the word or phrase it limits. The intended meaning is that the manager was the sole person involved — so "only" should modify "with his manager," giving "The CEO discussed the new venture only with his manager." As written, "The CEO only discussed" implies discussing was the sole action taken, which distorts the meaning. The error lies in part (1).

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Question 95archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Due to the security reasons we were _____ from entering into the cockpit of the plane.

  1. A
    denied
  2. B
    rejected
  3. C
    stopped
  4. D
    warned
Show answer
C. stopped

The sentence describes being physically prevented from entering a restricted area at a checkpoint. Stopped idiomatically pairs with "from + -ing" ("stopped from entering") and conveys being halted by security. "Denied" typically takes a noun object ("denied entry/permission"), not "denied from entering"; "rejected" suits applications, not physical access; "warned" describes a caution, not prevention. Hence the correct word is stopped.

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Question 96archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Exorbitant

  1. A
    Clear
  2. B
    Dull
  3. C
    High
  4. D
    Rare
Show answer
C. High

Exorbitant means excessively or unreasonably high, especially in reference to a price or amount (e.g., "exorbitant fees"). Among the options, High conveys the same idea of being great in amount or value. "Clear" relates to clarity, "Dull" to lack of brightness or interest, and "Rare" to scarcity — none captures the sense of "excessively large." Hence the closest synonym is High.

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Question 97archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Churlish

  1. A
    Belittle
  2. B
    Courteous
  3. C
    Fervent
  4. D
    Uncouth
Show answer
B. Courteous

Churlish means rude, ill-mannered, or surly. The opposite is someone polite and respectful — Courteous. "Belittle" (verb: to disparage) is unrelated; "Fervent" means passionate, not polite; "Uncouth" (rude, lacking refinement) is a synonym, not an antonym. Hence the antonym is Courteous.

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Question 98archived

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Ankita is disgusted _____ the habit of her brother.

  1. A
    at
  2. B
    on
  3. C
    of
  4. D
    with
Show answer
D. with

The adjective "disgusted" takes the preposition with when the source of disgust is a person or their habit/behaviour (e.g., "disgusted with his laziness"). Since the object here is "the habit of her brother," "with" is the natural fit. "At" or "by" is used for a specific action or sight, while "of" and "on" are not standard collocations with "disgusted." Hence the correct preposition is with.

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Question 99archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. If she had married Mr. Gupta (1)/ she would have been (2)/ recognized as Mrs. Gupta. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
D. 4

The sentence follows the third conditional structure used for hypothetical past situations: If + past perfect, … would have + past participle. Part (1) "If she had married" correctly uses the past perfect; part (2) "she would have been" correctly starts the result clause; part (3) "recognized as Mrs. Gupta" correctly completes the passive form "would have been recognized." All parts are grammatical, so the answer is No Error — option (4).

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Question 100archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Jeopardy

  1. A
    Angry
  2. B
    Injure
  3. C
    Risk
  4. D
    Serene
Show answer
C. Risk

Jeopardy means danger or exposure to harm, loss, or failure (e.g., "her career is in jeopardy"). Among the options, Risk — meaning exposure to danger — carries the same sense. "Angry" describes an emotion, "Injure" denotes the act of causing harm (not the state of danger), and "Serene" (calm) is the opposite. Hence the synonym is Risk.

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