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SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-12 · Shift 3

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

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Question 1archived

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Sheep : Lamb : : Cow : ?

  1. A
    Kitten
  2. B
    Cub
  3. C
    Calf
  4. D
    Caterpillar
Show answer
C. Calf

The relationship is adult animal : its young one. A lamb is the young of a sheep, and similarly a calf is the young of a cow. A kitten is the young of a cat, a cub is the young of a lion/tiger/bear, and a caterpillar is the larval stage of a butterfly — none match. Hence the answer is Calf.

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Question 2archived

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. PRAG : QTDK : : STOP : ?

  1. A
    LMNP
  2. B
    BDFE
  3. C
    TVRT
  4. D
    QSTG
Show answer
C. TVRT

The pattern adds +1, +2, +3, +4 to the positions of the four letters of the first word. For PRAG → QTDK: P(16)+1=Q, R(18)+2=T, A(1)+3=D, G(7)+4=K. \(\checkmark\) Applying the same shift to STOP: \[S(19)+1=T,\ T(20)+2=V,\ O(15)+3=R,\ P(16)+4=T\] Hence the answer is TVRT.

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Question 3archived

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 562 : 30 : : 663 : ?

  1. A
    43
  2. B
    49
  3. C
    54
  4. D
    58
Show answer
C. 54

The pattern is: the second number equals half the product of the digits of the first number. For 562: \(\frac{5\times 6\times 2}{2}=\frac{60}{2}=30\). \(\checkmark\) For 663: \(\frac{6\times 6\times 3}{2}=\frac{108}{2}=54\). Hence the answer is 54.

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Question 4archived

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    Cricket
  2. B
    Carrom
  3. C
    Table Tennis
  4. D
    Chess
Show answer
A. Cricket

Carrom, Table Tennis and Chess are all indoor games, typically played on a board or table in a confined space. Cricket is an outdoor sport played on a large open field, making it the odd one out.

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Question 5archived

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    IMX
  2. B
    DHS
  3. C
    GWK
  4. D
    KOZ
Show answer
C. GWK

Convert each triplet to alphabet positions and check the gaps between consecutive letters. IMX → (9, 13, 24): gaps +4, +11. DHS → (4, 8, 19): gaps +4, +11. KOZ → (11, 15, 26): gaps +4, +11. GWK → (7, 23, 11): gaps +16, −12 — a completely different pattern. Hence GWK is the odd group.

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Question 6archived

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    122 - 1331
  2. B
    173 - 2197
  3. C
    197 - 2744
  4. D
    290 - 4913
Show answer
B. 173 - 2197

In each pair the second number is a perfect cube \(n^3\) and the first number should equal \(n^2+1\). 122–1331: \(11^3=1331,\ 11^2+1=122\). \(\checkmark\) 197–2744: \(14^3=2744,\ 14^2+1=197\). \(\checkmark\) 290–4913: \(17^3=4913,\ 17^2+1=290\). \(\checkmark\) 173–2197: \(13^3=2197\) but \(13^2+1=170\ne 173\). Hence 173–2197 is the odd pair.

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Question 7archived

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Xenons 2. Xylyls 3. Xanthic 4. Xenians 5. Xyst

  1. A
    34125
  2. B
    34521
  3. C
    43251
  4. D
    51342
Show answer
A. 34125

Comparing letter by letter: Xanthic (Xa…) comes first since 'a' precedes 'e' and 'y'. Among the 'Xe…' words, Xenians (Xeni…) precedes Xenons (Xeno…) because 'i' < 'o'. Among the 'Xy…' words, Xylyls (Xyl…) precedes Xyst (Xys…) because 'l' < 's'. Dictionary order: Xanthic, Xenians, Xenons, Xylyls, Xyst → 3, 4, 1, 2, 5.

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Question 8archived

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. LOQ, SVX, ZCE, ?

  1. A
    GJL
  2. B
    GLJ
  3. C
    GTL
  4. D
    JLG
Show answer
A. GJL

Each letter advances by +7 positions (with wrap-around) from one term to the next. L(12)→S(19)→Z(26)→Z+7=33−26=7→G. O(15)→V(22)→C(3, since 22+7=29−26)→C+7=10→J. Q(17)→X(24)→E(5, since 24+7=31−26)→E+7=12→L. Hence the missing term is GJL.

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Question 9archived

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 13, 27, 56, 115, ?

  1. A
    224
  2. B
    231
  3. C
    233
  4. D
    234
Show answer
D. 234

Each term follows \(a_{n+1}=2a_n+n\), where the added integer increases by 1 each step: \(13\times2+1=27\), \(27\times2+2=56\), \(56\times2+3=115\). Applying the next step: \(115\times2+4=234\). Hence the missing number is 234.

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Question 10archived

Sumitra remembers that her mother's birthday is after 13th February but before 16th February but her brother remembers that his mother's birthday is after 14th February but before 17th February. On which date Sumitra's mother's birthday will be celebrated?

  1. A
    13th February
  2. B
    14th February
  3. C
    15th February
  4. D
    17th February
Show answer
C. 15th February

Sumitra's clue (after 13th, before 16th) leaves the 14th or 15th February. Her brother's clue (after 14th, before 17th) leaves the 15th or 16th February. The only date common to both ranges is 15th February.

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Question 11archived

There are five energy drinks - Red, Moto, Energy, Lion and Bull containing different range of sugar content. Moto having sugar content more than all other drinks. Energy having the sugar content only more than the Lion. Bull is not having sugar content more than the Red. Which of the following drink having the second most sugar content?

  1. A
    Bull
  2. B
    Energy
  3. C
    Red
  4. D
    Moto
Show answer
C. Red

From the clues: Moto is the highest; Energy is greater than only Lion, so Lion is lowest and Energy is second-lowest; Bull is not more than Red, so Red > Bull. Placing Red and Bull in the remaining 2nd and 3rd ranks with Red > Bull gives the order: Moto > Red > Bull > Energy > Lion. The drink with the second-most sugar is Red.

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Question 12archived

In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. CALCULATING

  1. A
    GAIN
  2. B
    TANING
  3. C
    TAIL
  4. D
    CULT
Show answer
B. TANING

Letter inventory of CALCULATING: C(2), A(2), L(2), U(1), T(1), I(1), N(1), G(1). GAIN, TAIL, CULT can each be formed from these letters. TANING needs two N's, but CALCULATING contains only one N. Hence the word that cannot be formed is TANING.

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Question 13archived

In a certain code language, "WILDHORN" is written as "1133" and "RAPTURE" is written as "1089". How is "PORTLOUIS" written in that code language?

  1. A
    1395
  2. B
    1485
  3. C
    1584
  4. D
    1595
Show answer
D. 1595

Take the sum of alphabetical positions (A=1...Z=26) of each letter and multiply by 11. Check: WILDHORN: \(23+9+12+4+8+15+18+14=103\), and \(103\times11=1133\). RAPTURE: \(18+1+16+20+21+18+5=99\), and \(99\times11=1089\). Apply to PORTLOUIS: \(16+15+18+20+12+15+21+9+19=145\). \(145\times11=1595\). Hence the code is 1595.

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Question 14archived

If "A" denotes "subtracted from", "B" denotes "added to", "C" denotes "divided by", "D" denotes "multiplied by", then which of the following statement is correct?

  1. A
    3 A 12 B 16 D 17 C 1 = 163
  2. B
    5 C 7 A 9 D 8 B 2 = 294
  3. C
    13 C 13 A 13 B 13 D 13 = 157
  4. D
    18 C 16 D 49 A 27 B 9 = 200
Show answer
C. 13 C 13 A 13 B 13 D 13 = 157

Substitute A=−, B=+, C=÷, D=× and evaluate using BODMAS. Option 3: \(13\div13-13+13\times13 = 1-13+169 = 157\), which matches the stated value. Quick check of the others: Option 1 gives \(3-12+272=263\neq163\); Option 2 gives a non-integer; Option 4 gives \(\tfrac{18}{16}\times49-27+9\approx37.125\neq200\). Hence the correct statement is Option 3.

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Question 15archived

If 8 * 2 * 5 = 21 and 1 * 4 * 8 = 12, then 9 * 2 * 5 = ?

  1. A
    23
  2. B
    21
  3. C
    31
  4. D
    39
Show answer
A. 23

The rule from the examples is \((a\times b)+c\): \((8\times2)+5=21\) and \((1\times4)+8=12\), both matching. Applying to 9, 2, 5: \((9\times2)+5=18+5=23\). Therefore the answer is 23.

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Question 16archived

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark (?) form the given alternatives.

Question figure
  1. A
    48
  2. B
    52
  3. C
    55
  4. D
    58
Show answer
D. 58

1) 9 and 6 = 9 2+ 6 2= 81 + 36 = 117 2) 8 and 2 = 8 2+ 2 2= 64 + 04 = 68 3) 7 and 3 = 7 2+ 3 2= 49 + 09 = 58 Thus, the answer is 58.

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Question 17archived

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    20
  2. B
    23
  3. C
    24
  4. D
    26
Show answer
A. 20

The 4 big triangles in diagonal position. 1 triangle at the top. The top triangle further contains 3 small triangles. It means total 4. 1 triangle at the bottom. The bottom triangle further contains 3 small triangles. It means total 4. 1 triangle at the left position. The left position further contains 3 small triangles. It means total 4. 1 triangle at the right position. The right position further contains 3 small triangles. It means total 4. Thus, there are 20 triangles in the given figure.

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Question 18archived

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. All LED are bulb. II. Some bulbs are not tube light. Conclusions: I. Some tube lights are LED. II. All LED are tube lights.

  1. A
    Only conclusion (I) follows.
  2. B
    Only conclusion (II) follows.
  3. C
    Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.
  4. D
    Both conclusions follow.
Show answer
C. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Statement I: All LED ⊂ Bulb. Statement II: Some Bulb ∉ Tube light. The LED subset of Bulb can lie wholly inside Tube light, wholly outside it, or overlap it — all are consistent with the premises. Since a valid arrangement exists in which no LED is a tube light, Conclusion I ("Some tube lights are LED") is not guaranteed. The same counter-example shows Conclusion II ("All LED are tube lights") is not guaranteed either. Hence neither conclusion follows.

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Question 19archived

Three positions of a cube are shown below, what will come opposite to face containing ‘α’?

Question figure
  1. A
    β
  2. B
    δ
  3. C
    η
  4. D
    θ
Show answer
B. δ

In the first and the third diagram β, ¥, θ and η are adjacent to α. Thus, the one opposite of α is δ. Hence, the correct answer is δ. Trick: How to easily find the opposite faces: Choose any 2 dices which have only one number in common. After rotating the middle one, we get, FIGURE As in, II and III only θ is common. Now move clockwise as per the dice. In II, θ - δ - β In III, θ - α - η So, we can observe that δ is opposite to α and β is opposite to η. Now the only θ is left, which will be the opposite of γ. Note: There was an ambiguity in the original question in the previous year's paper. We have modified the figure of the cube in the first position to remove this.

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Question 20archived

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Pet animals, Dog, Cat

  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
C. Option C (shown in image)

Dogs and cats are pet animals but not all dogs and cats are pet. Thus, the answer is option 3.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 21archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

To complete the diagram, we need one vertical line and two lines in slanting position which will complete the diagram. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 22archived

From the given answer figure, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

The question figure is hidden or embedded in such a manner that in the question, the circle has an arc at the top and bottom and a vertical line in the centre. Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 23archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
D. Option D (shown in image)

Hence, answer is figure 4.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 24archived

If the mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

A mirror when placed on the line AB. The figure K will appear at the right hand side. The figure J will appear on the left side. The alphabets Q, K and J will get reversed. Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 25archived

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as gives in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix - I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix - II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘Z’ can be represented by 87, 99 etc. and ‘T’ be represented by 69, 95 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘MAZE’. Matrix - I 0 1 2 3 4 0 M O G A C 1 A C M O G 2 O G A C M 3 C M O G A 4 G A C M O Matrix - II 5 6 7 8 9 5 J Z T E U 6 E U J Z T 7 Z T E U J 8 U J Z T E 9 T E U J Z

  1. A
    00, 41, 99, 96
  2. B
    12, 04, 56, 58
  3. C
    24, 22, 88, 65
  4. D
    43, 10, 69, 77
Show answer
A. 00, 41, 99, 96

Each code is (row, column). Read each pair against the matrices: 00 → M (Matrix I), 41 → A (Matrix I), 99 → Z (Matrix II), 96 → E (Matrix II). All four match M, A, Z, E in order. The other options fail at the second or third letter (e.g., 04 = C, 88 = E, 69 = T). Hence the set for MAZE is 00, 41, 99, 96.

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Question 26archived

What does indifference curve represent?

  1. A
    Levels of Income and Capital
  2. B
    Satisfaction derived from two goods
  3. C
    Income from two businesses
  4. D
    Relationship between expenditure and savings
Show answer
B. Satisfaction derived from two goods

An indifference curve plots all combinations of two goods that give a consumer the same level of total utility (satisfaction), so the consumer is indifferent between any bundles on the same curve. It is not about income, capital, business income, or savings — those belong to budget lines and national-income concepts. Hence the correct option is Satisfaction derived from two goods.

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Question 27archived

Match the List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer by using the options below List 1 List 2 a. Nationalisation of Banks 1. Narender Modi b. Demonetisation(2016) 2. P.V. Narsimha Rao c. Mandal Commission 3. Indira Gandhi d. Liberalisation 4. V.P. Singh

  1. A
    a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
  2. B
    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
  3. C
    a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
  4. D
    a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Show answer
A. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

Nationalisation of major commercial banks (1969, 1980) took place under Indira Gandhi → 3. Demonetisation of ₹500 and ₹1000 notes (Nov 2016) was announced under Narendra Modi → 1. The Mandal Commission report was implemented in 1990 by V.P. Singh → 4. The 1991 Liberalisation reforms were launched by P.V. Narasimha Rao → 2. Hence the match is a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2.

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Question 28archived

India has taken the concept of 'Judicial Review' from which country's constitution?

  1. A
    United States
  2. B
    United Kingdom
  3. C
    Canada
  4. D
    Ireland
Show answer
A. United States

The concept of Judicial Review in India is borrowed from the Constitution of the United States, where it was established in Marbury v. Madison (1803). From the UK India took parliamentary government, from Ireland the Directive Principles, and from Canada the federal scheme with a strong centre — none of these supplied judicial review. Hence the answer is United States.

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Question 29archived

How many times a person can be elected as the President of India?

  1. A
    One time
  2. B
    Two times
  3. C
    Three times
  4. D
    No bar
Show answer
D. No bar

Article 57 of the Constitution states that a person who holds or has held the office of President shall be eligible for re-election to that office, without specifying any upper limit on the number of terms. Unlike the US Constitution (two-term cap), the Indian Constitution places no bar on re-election. Dr. Rajendra Prasad has so far been the only President to serve two terms. Hence the correct answer is No bar.

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Question 30archived

Who shot dead John Saunders on 17th December 1927?

  1. A
    Bhagat Singh
  2. B
    Mangal Panday
  3. C
    Sukhdev
  4. D
    Bipin Chandra Pal Singh
Show answer
A. Bhagat Singh

To avenge Lala Lajpat Rai's death after the Simon Commission lathi-charge, HSRA revolutionaries planned to kill SP James Scott but mistakenly shot Assistant SP John P. Saunders outside the Lahore police headquarters on 17 December 1928. The shots were fired by Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru; Sukhdev planned the action and Chandrashekhar Azad provided cover. Among the options, only Bhagat Singh fired at Saunders. Hence the answer is Bhagat Singh. (Note: the historical date is 17 December 1928, not 1927.)

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Question 31archived

Sardar Vallabhbai Patel was the leader of _______.

  1. A
    Bhoodan Movement
  2. B
    Rowlatt Satyagraha
  3. C
    Bardoli Satyagraha
  4. D
    Swadeshi Movement
Show answer
C. Bardoli Satyagraha

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was a peasant movement in Gujarat against a steep hike in land revenue. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led it to a successful conclusion, forcing the British to roll back the increase; the grateful women of Bardoli gave him the title "Sardar". The Bhoodan Movement was led by Vinoba Bhave, the Rowlatt Satyagraha by Mahatma Gandhi, and the Swadeshi Movement by the Lal-Bal-Pal trio. Hence the answer is Bardoli Satyagraha.

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Question 32archived

Which type of forests majorly comprises of lichens and mosses?

  1. A
    Taiga forests
  2. B
    Tundra forests
  3. C
    Temperate mixed forests
  4. D
    Tropical ever green forests
Show answer
B. Tundra forests

The correct answer is Option 2: Tundra forests. Why Tundra Forests? The Tundra biome is characterized by extremely cold temperatures, harsh winds, permafrost (permanently frozen soil), and very short growing seasons. Because of these brutal conditions, large trees cannot survive. The Vegetation: The plant life in the tundra consists mostly of low-growing vegetation like lichens, mosses, grasses, and small shrubs. Survival Mechanism: Lichens and mosses are highly resilient. They don't need deep soil to grow and can survive by absorbing moisture and nutrients directly from the air and surface water, making them perfectly suited for the frozen tundra landscape. Quick Look at the Other Options: Taiga forests (Boreal Forests): Located just south of the tundra, these forests are dominated by coniferous, evergreen trees like pines, spruces, and firs. Temperate mixed forests: These regions feature a mix of broadleaf deciduous trees (like oak and maple) and coniferous trees, found in moderate climates. Tropical evergreen forests: These are lush, dense rainforests found near the equator, featuring massive trees, a multi-layered canopy, and incredible biodiversity (like the Amazon).

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Question 33archived

Which of the following has maximum diurnal temperature difference?

  1. A
    Desert
  2. B
    Mountains
  3. C
    Plateau
  4. D
    Ocean
Show answer
A. Desert

Deserts exhibit the largest diurnal temperature range, often exceeding 20°C between day and night. This is caused by low humidity (little water vapour to trap outgoing radiation), clear skies (no cloud blanket), and bare sandy surfaces that heat rapidly under intense sunlight and cool just as fast after sunset. Oceans have very small ranges due to water's high heat capacity; mountains and plateaus show moderate variation. Hence the answer is Desert.

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Question 34archived

Night Blindness is caused by deficiency of which of the following Vitamin?

  1. A
    Vitamin B
  2. B
    Vitamin C
  3. C
    Vitamin K
  4. D
    Vitamin A
Show answer
D. Vitamin A

The correct answer is Option 4: Vitamin A. Why Vitamin A? Vitamin A plays a crucial role in maintaining healthy vision. It is an essential component of rhodopsin, a protein found in the retina of your eyes that allows you to see in low-light and dark conditions. The Condition: When your body lacks Vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin drops, making it very difficult for the eyes to adjust to darkness. This condition is called Night Blindness (also known medically as nyctalopia). Severe Effects: Prolonged deficiency can lead to a more severe eye condition called Xerophthalmia, where the eyes become dangerously dry, potentially leading to permanent blindness.

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Question 35archived

The right portion of human heart receives ______ blood.

  1. A
    pure
  2. B
    impure
  3. C
    mixed
  4. D
    None of these
Show answer
B. impure

The right side of the heart (right atrium and right ventricle) receives deoxygenated blood returning from the body via the superior and inferior vena cava. This blood is low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide, commonly described as impure. It is then pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs for oxygenation. The left side carries oxygenated (pure) blood; the chambers are separated, so mixing does not occur in a healthy heart.

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Question 36archived

Which of the following is the largest gland in human body?

  1. A
    Thyroid
  2. B
    Liver
  3. C
    Kidney
  4. D
    Pancreas
Show answer
B. Liver

The liver is the largest gland in the human body, weighing about 1.4–1.6 kg in adults. It is also the largest internal organ. It functions as an exocrine gland by secreting bile and performs over 500 functions including detoxification, protein synthesis, and glycogen storage. The thyroid (~25 g), pancreas (~80 g), and kidneys are much smaller; kidneys are primarily excretory organs, not glands.

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Question 37archived

On which principle does the hydraulic lift works?

  1. A
    Newton's law
  2. B
    Pascal's law
  3. C
    Archimedes's law
  4. D
    Joule's law
Show answer
B. Pascal's law

A hydraulic lift works on Pascal's law, which states that pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished in all directions. A small force \(F_1\) on a small piston of area \(A_1\) creates pressure \(P=F_1/A_1\). This pressure acts on the larger piston of area \(A_2\), producing \(F_2=F_1\,(A_2/A_1)\), giving force multiplication. Newton's law governs motion, Archimedes' deals with buoyancy, and Joule's with heat — none explain this.

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Question 38archived

At what temperature (in degree celsius), the numerical values on Celsius and Fahrenheit scales become equal?

  1. A
    -40
  2. B
    40
  3. C
    273
  4. D
    -273
Show answer
A. -40

Set the common numerical value as \(x\), so \(^\circ C = {^\circ F} = x\). Using the conversion \(^\circ F = \tfrac{9}{5}\,^\circ C + 32\): \[x = \tfrac{9}{5}x + 32\] \[x - \tfrac{9}{5}x = 32 \;\Rightarrow\; -\tfrac{4}{5}x = 32\] \[x = 32\times\left(-\tfrac{5}{4}\right) = -40\] Therefore \(-40\,^\circ C = -40\,^\circ F\), so the answer is -40.

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Question 39archived

In MICR, what does 'I' stands for?

  1. A
    Interactive
  2. B
    Information
  3. C
    Ink
  4. D
    Instruction
Show answer
C. Ink

MICR stands for Magnetic Ink Character Recognition. The letter I stands for Ink. It is a technology used mainly in banking to process cheques: characters are printed in special iron-oxide-based magnetic ink in a standardised font (E-13B or CMC-7), which a MICR reader magnetises and decodes. The magnetic property makes the data machine-readable, fast to process, and resistant to forgery.

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Question 40archived

What is the process of conversion of solid state directly to gaseous state called?

  1. A
    Evaporation
  2. B
    Condensation
  3. C
    Sublimation
  4. D
    Distillation
Show answer
C. Sublimation

The direct conversion of a solid to a gas (skipping the liquid phase) is called sublimation. It occurs when the substance's vapour pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure below its melting point. Common examples include dry ice (solid CO2), camphor, naphthalene balls, and iodine. Evaporation is liquid to gas, condensation is gas to liquid, and distillation is a separation technique using vaporisation followed by condensation.

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Question 41archived

What are the main components of the alloy bronze?

  1. A
    Copper and Zinc
  2. B
    Copper and Tin
  3. C
    Zinc and Nickel
  4. D
    Aluminium and Nickel
Show answer
B. Copper and Tin

Bronze is an alloy composed mainly of copper and tin, typically around 88% copper and 12% tin. Adding tin to copper increases hardness, lowers the melting point, and improves corrosion resistance — useful for tools, statues, bearings, and bells. The other combinations refer to different alloys: copper + zinc is brass; zinc + nickel and aluminium + nickel are not standard named alloys of common use.

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Question 42archived

Which of the following causes fly ash?

  1. A
    Hydroelectric Power Station
  2. B
    Coal Combustion Power Plant
  3. C
    Nuclear Power Plant
  4. D
    Tidal Power Plant
Show answer
B. Coal Combustion Power Plant

Fly ash is the fine particulate residue carried up with the flue gases when pulverised coal is burned, captured by electrostatic precipitators before the stack. It consists mainly of silica, alumina, iron oxide, and calcium oxide. Hence it is produced by coal combustion power plants. Hydroelectric and tidal plants involve no combustion, and nuclear plants generate heat by fission, producing radioactive waste rather than ash.

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Question 43archived

"Dulari Kanya", a scheme to bring down infant mortality in the state is launched by which Indian State?

  1. A
    Arunachal Pradesh
  2. B
    Rajasthan
  3. C
    Uttar Pradesh
  4. D
    Madhya Pradesh
Show answer
A. Arunachal Pradesh

The Dulari Kanya scheme was launched by the Government of Arunachal Pradesh to reduce infant mortality, especially among girl children. Under it, a fixed deposit is made in the name of a girl child born in a government or accredited hospital, encouraging institutional deliveries and improving newborn survival. The other states have their own girl-child schemes (Rajasthan's Rajshri, UP's Kanya Sumangala, MP's Ladli Laxmi) but not Dulari Kanya.

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Question 44archived

Who developed the theory of relativity?

  1. A
    Isaac Newton
  2. B
    Charles Darwin
  3. C
    Marie Curie
  4. D
    Albert Einstein
Show answer
D. Albert Einstein

The Theory of Relativity was developed by Albert Einstein — Special Relativity in 1905 (introducing \(E=mc^2\) and the constancy of the speed of light) and General Relativity in 1915 (gravity as the curvature of spacetime). Newton formulated classical mechanics and universal gravitation, Darwin proposed evolution by natural selection, and Marie Curie pioneered work on radioactivity.

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Question 45archived

'Queensberry rules' is code of rules that directly influences which of the following sport?

  1. A
    Tennis
  2. B
    Boxing
  3. C
    Polo
  4. D
    Billiards
Show answer
B. Boxing

The Queensberry Rules, drafted in 1865 by John Graham Chambers and endorsed by the 9th Marquess of Queensberry, form the modern code for boxing. They introduced compulsory padded gloves, three-minute rounds with one-minute rest intervals, the ten-second count for a downed fighter, weight divisions, and a ban on wrestling holds — replacing earlier bare-knuckle traditions and shaping the sport as it is practised today.

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Question 46archived

Who amidst the following is a distinguished painter?

  1. A
    Uday Shankar
  2. B
    Sonal Mansingh
  3. C
    Amrita Shergill
  4. D
    Yamini Kirshnamurthy
Show answer
C. Amrita Shergill

Among the four, Amrita Shergill (1913–1941) was the distinguished painter. A Hungarian-Indian artist, she is regarded as a pioneer of modern Indian art, blending Western post-impressionist techniques with Indian subjects and miniature traditions; works like Bride's Toilet and Three Girls are iconic. Uday Shankar was a modern dance pioneer, while Sonal Mansingh and Yamini Krishnamurthy are celebrated classical dancers (Bharatanatyam/Odissi/Kuchipudi).

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Question 47archived

Who among the following was awarded with Padma Shri 2017 in the field of 'Sports - Hockey'?

  1. A
    Sardar Singh
  2. B
    P. R. Shreejesh
  3. C
    Ramandeep Singh
  4. D
    Yuvraj Walmiki
Show answer
B. P. R. Shreejesh

P. R. Sreejesh, the Indian hockey team goalkeeper, was conferred the Padma Shri 2017 in the Sports – Hockey category for his outstanding contribution as custodian of the national side, including captaining India at the 2016 Rio Olympics. Sardar Singh received the Padma Shri earlier in 2015; Ramandeep Singh and Yuvraj Walmiki were not among the 2017 awardees.

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Question 48archived

"HemaMalini: Beyond the Dream Girl" is authored by which author?

  1. A
    MeenaIyer
  2. B
    Hema Malini
  3. C
    Ram Kamal Mukherjee
  4. D
    Vijay Kumar
Show answer
C. Ram Kamal Mukherjee

The biography "Hema Malini: Beyond the Dream Girl" was written by Ram Kamal Mukherjee, a film journalist and author. It was released on 16 October 2017, on Hema Malini's 69th birthday, and chronicles her journey across cinema, Bharatanatyam, and politics. Since it is a biography (not autobiography), Hema Malini herself is the subject, not the author; Meena Iyer and Vijay Kumar are unrelated to this title.

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Question 49archived

A 7500 mile direct rail link was launched on 10 April 2017 between China and _____.

  1. A
    Pakistan
  2. B
    Kazakhstan
  3. C
    Great Britain
  4. D
    France
Show answer
C. Great Britain

The correct answer is Great Britain. On 10 April 2017, the first direct freight train from Yiwu, China departed on the return service to London, covering roughly 7,500 miles (about 12,000 km) through Kazakhstan, Russia, Belarus, Poland, Germany, Belgium and France via the Channel Tunnel. This made London the 15th European city linked to China by rail freight under the Belt and Road Initiative. France and Kazakhstan are only transit countries on this route, and no comparable 2017 link to Pakistan exists.

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Question 50archived

19th SAARC Summit was planned to be held in November 2016 but it got postponed. Which country was its host?

  1. A
    Nepal
  2. B
    Bhutan
  3. C
    India
  4. D
    Pakistan
Show answer
D. Pakistan

The correct answer is Pakistan. SAARC summits rotate among the eight member states in English alphabetical order. The 18th Summit was hosted by Nepal in 2014, so Pakistan was due to host the 19th Summit, scheduled for Islamabad in November 2016. The summit was postponed after India, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Afghanistan withdrew following the Uri attack. Nepal had already hosted the previous summit, while Bhutan and India were not next in the rotation.

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Question 51archived

Product of three consecutive odd numbers is 1287. What is the largest of the three numbers?

  1. A
    9
  2. B
    11
  3. C
    13
  4. D
    17
Show answer
C. 13

Step 1 — Set up the equation: Let the three consecutive odd numbers be \(x-2,\ x,\ x+2\). Their product is: \[(x-2)\,x\,(x+2)=x(x^2-4)=1287\] Step 2 — Estimate the middle term: Since \(\sqrt[3]{1287}\approx 10.88\), the middle odd integer must be \(x=11\). Step 3 — Verify: \[9\times 11\times 13 = 99\times 13 = 1287\ \checkmark\] The numbers are 9, 11, 13, so the largest is 13.

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Question 52archived

45 men or 60 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days. How many days will 15 men and 20 boys take to complete the work?

  1. A
    23
  2. B
    45
  3. C
    30
  4. D
    25
Show answer
C. 30

Step 1 — Relate men and boys: 45 men and 60 boys do equal work in the same time, so \(45M = 60B \Rightarrow 3M = 4B\), i.e. 3 men equal 4 boys in efficiency. Step 2 — Convert the mixed group: \(15\ \text{men} = 15\times\tfrac{4}{3}=20\ \text{boys}\). So 15 men + 20 boys = 40 boys. Step 3 — Find the days: Total work = \(60\times 20 = 1200\) boy-days. Days needed = \(\dfrac{1200}{40}=30\). Therefore the work takes 30 days.

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Question 53archived

How many spherical balls of radius 1 cm can be made by melting a hemisphere of radius 6 cm?

  1. A
    112
  2. B
    108
  3. C
    116
  4. D
    104
Show answer
B. 108

Step 1 — Volume of the hemisphere: \[V_H=\tfrac{2}{3}\pi R^3=\tfrac{2}{3}\pi(6)^3=144\pi\ \text{cm}^3\] Step 2 — Volume of one small sphere: \[V_s=\tfrac{4}{3}\pi(1)^3=\tfrac{4}{3}\pi\ \text{cm}^3\] Step 3 — Conserve volume: \[N=\dfrac{V_H}{V_s}=\dfrac{144\pi}{\tfrac{4}{3}\pi}=144\times\tfrac{3}{4}=108\] Therefore 108 balls can be made.

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Question 54archived

The marked price of a shirt is Rs. 1280. If the shirt is being sold for Rs. 900, then what is the discount percentage?

  1. A
    31.31
  2. B
    25.57
  3. C
    29.68
  4. D
    34.36
Show answer
C. 29.68

Discount = MP − SP = \(1280-900=380\). \[\text{Discount \%}=\dfrac{380}{1280}\times 100=29.6875\%\] Rounded to two decimals, the discount is approximately 29.68%.

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Question 55archived

The ratio of number of cans of orange, pineapple and mixed fruit juices kept in a store is 8 : 9 : 15. If the store sells 25%, 33.33% and 20% of orange, pineapple and mixed fruit juices cans respectively, then what is the ratio of number of cans of these juices in the remaining stock?

  1. A
    1 : 1 : 2
  2. B
    6 : 6 : 13
  3. C
    12 : 15 : 19
  4. D
    4 : 9 : 13
Show answer
A. 1 : 1 : 2

Step 1 — Set initial stock: Let the cans be \(8x,\ 9x,\ 15x\). Step 2 — Cans sold: Orange: \(25\%\) of \(8x = 2x\). Pineapple: \(\tfrac{1}{3}\) of \(9x = 3x\). Mixed: \(20\%\) of \(15x = 3x\). Step 3 — Remaining cans: \(8x-2x:9x-3x:15x-3x = 6x:6x:12x = 1:1:2\). Therefore the remaining ratio is 1 : 1 : 2.

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Question 56archived

The ratio of number of boys and girls in a class is 2 : 3. The average weight of boys and girls in the class is 18 kg and 21 kg respectively. What is the average weight (in kgs) of all the boys and girls together?

  1. A
    99/5
  2. B
    101/5
  3. C
    109/6
  4. D
    96/5
Show answer
A. 99/5

Using the ratio as weights, the combined (weighted) average weight is: \[\bar{W}=\dfrac{2(18)+3(21)}{2+3}=\dfrac{36+63}{5}=\dfrac{99}{5}\ \text{kg}\] So the average weight of the whole class is \(\dfrac{99}{5}\) kg.

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Question 57archived

A milk merchant buys 50 litres of milk at the rate of Rs. 40 per litre and mixes 5 litres of water in it. If he sells this mixture at the rate of Rs. 42 per litre, then what is the profit percentage for the dealer?

  1. A
    17.2
  2. B
    14.4
  3. C
    16.6
  4. D
    15.5
Show answer
D. 15.5

Step 1 — Costs and total volume: CP of milk \(=50\times 40=\text{Rs.}\ 2000\). Water is free, so total CP = Rs. 2000. Total mixture sold = \(50+5=55\) litres. Step 2 — Selling price and profit: \[SP = 55\times 42 = \text{Rs.}\ 2310,\quad \text{Profit}=2310-2000=310\] Step 3 — Profit percent: \[\text{Profit \%}=\dfrac{310}{2000}\times 100=15.5\%\] The dealer's profit is 15.5%.

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Question 58archived

If A is 6 times of B, then by what percentage is B is less than A?

  1. A
    64.82
  2. B
    83.33
  3. C
    28.56
  4. D
    85.71
Show answer
B. 83.33

Step 1 — Relative speed: Both move in the same direction, so the gap closes at \(10-8=2\) km/hr. Step 2 — Initial lead: By 8:30 am the first runner has been moving for 2.5 hours, covering \(8\times 2.5 = 20\) km. Step 3 — Time to overtake: \[t=\dfrac{20}{2}=10\ \text{hours after 8:30 am}\] 8:30 am + 10 h = 6:30 pm.

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Question 59archived

A runner starts running from a point at 6:00 am with a speed of 8 km/hr. Another racer starts from the same point at 8:30 am in the same direction with a speed of 10 km/hr. At what time of the day (in p.m.) will the second racer will overtake the other runner?

  1. A
    8:00
  2. B
    4:00
  3. C
    6:30
  4. D
    5:30
Show answer
C. 6:30

Step 1 — Head start: Runner 1 runs alone from 6:00 am to 8:30 am, i.e. 2.5 hr at 8 km/hr. \[\text{Gap} = 8 \times 2.5 = 20 \text{ km}\] Step 2 — Relative speed: Both move in the same direction, so the gap closes at \(10 - 8 = 2\) km/hr. Step 3 — Time to overtake: \[t = \frac{20}{2} = 10 \text{ hours after 8:30 am}\] 8:30 am + 10 hr = 6:30 pm.

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Question 60archived

A sum amounts to Rs 7727.104 at the rate of 12% per annum compounded annually after three years. What is the value of principal (in Rs)?

  1. A
    5000
  2. B
    5200
  3. C
    5350
  4. D
    5500
Show answer
D. 5500

For annual compounding, \(A=P\left(1+\dfrac{r}{100}\right)^t\), so \(P=\dfrac{A}{(1.12)^3}\). \[(1.12)^3 = 1.404928\] \[P=\dfrac{7727.104}{1.404928}=\text{Rs.}\ 5500\] The principal is Rs. 5500.

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Question 61archived

When [x + (1/x)] = 5, then what is the value of [x - (1/x)]?

  1. A
    11
  2. B
    ± √22
  3. C
    21
  4. D
    ± √21
Show answer
D. ± √21

Using the identity \(\left(x-\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^2=\left(x+\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^2-4\): \[\left(x-\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^2 = 5^2-4 = 21\] Taking square roots, \(x-\dfrac{1}{x}=\pm\sqrt{21}\). The answer is \(\pm\sqrt{21}\).

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Question 62archived

If x = (√2 + 1)/(√2 - 1), then what is the value of (x 5 + x 4 + x 2 + x)/x 3 ?

  1. A
    40
  2. B
    37.5
  3. C
    38
  4. D
    20√2
Show answer
A. 40

Step 1 — Rationalise x: \[x=\dfrac{\sqrt 2+1}{\sqrt 2-1}\cdot\dfrac{\sqrt 2+1}{\sqrt 2+1}=\dfrac{(\sqrt 2+1)^2}{2-1}=3+2\sqrt 2\] Its conjugate gives \(\dfrac{1}{x}=3-2\sqrt 2\), so \(x+\dfrac{1}{x}=6\). Step 2 — Simplify the expression: \[\dfrac{x^5+x^4+x^2+x}{x^3}=x^2+x+\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{x^2}=\left(x^2+\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right)+\left(x+\dfrac{1}{x}\right)\] Step 3 — Evaluate: \(x^2+\dfrac{1}{x^2}=\left(x+\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^2-2 = 36-2 = 34\). Total = \(34+6=\) 40.

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Question 63archived

If x = 5 - 2√6, then what is the value of √x +(1/√x)?

  1. A
    5
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    2√3
  4. D
    2√2
Show answer
C. 2√3

Recognise \(5-2\sqrt 6 = 3+2-2\sqrt 3\sqrt 2 = (\sqrt 3-\sqrt 2)^2\), so \(\sqrt x=\sqrt 3-\sqrt 2\) (taking the positive root). Rationalising the reciprocal: \[\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt 3-\sqrt 2}\cdot\dfrac{\sqrt 3+\sqrt 2}{\sqrt 3+\sqrt 2}=\sqrt 3+\sqrt 2\] Adding: \(\sqrt x+\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}=(\sqrt 3-\sqrt 2)+(\sqrt 3+\sqrt 2)=\) \(2\sqrt 3\).

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Question 64archived

If 27x + 27[x-(1/3)] = 99, then what is the value of x?

  1. A
    2
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    4
  4. D
    5
Show answer
A. 2

Expand and combine: \[27x + 27\left(x-\tfrac{1}{3}\right) = 27x + 27x - 9 = 54x - 9\] Set equal to 99: \[54x - 9 = 99 \implies 54x = 108 \implies x = 2\] Therefore x = 2.

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Question 65archived

The inradius of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm. What is the circum-radius (in cm) of the same triangle?

  1. A
    5
  2. B
    10√3
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    20√3
Show answer
C. 20

For an equilateral triangle, the incentre, centroid and circumcentre coincide, and the centroid divides each median in a 2:1 ratio. Hence the circumradius is twice the inradius: \[R = 2r = 2 \times 10 = 20 \text{ cm}\] Therefore R = 20 cm.

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Question 66archived

The point of intersection of all the angle bisector of a triangle is ______ of the triangle.

  1. A
    Incenter
  2. B
    Circumcenter
  3. C
    Centroid
  4. D
    Orthocenter
Show answer
A. Incenter

The three angle bisectors of a triangle are concurrent, and their common point is the incentre — the centre of the inscribed circle, equidistant from all three sides. Perpendicular bisectors meet at the circumcentre, medians at the centroid, and altitudes at the orthocentre. Hence the answer is Incentre.

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Question 67archived

ABC is an equilateral triangle and P is the orthocenter of the triangle, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠BPC?

  1. A
    90
  2. B
    120
  3. C
    135
  4. D
    145
Show answer
B. 120

For any triangle, the angle formed at the orthocentre by two altitudes is supplementary to the opposite vertex angle: \[\angle BPC = 180^\circ - \angle A\] In an equilateral triangle, \(\angle A = 60^\circ\), so: \[\angle BPC = 180^\circ - 60^\circ = 120^\circ\] Therefore 120°.

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Question 68archived

In a triangle ABC, AD is angle bisector of ∠A and AB : AC = 3 : 4. If the area of triangle ABC is 350 cm 2, then what is the area (in cm 2) of triangle ABD?

  1. A
    150
  2. B
    200
  3. C
    210
  4. D
    240
Show answer
A. 150

Step 1 — Apply the Angle Bisector Theorem: \[\frac{BD}{DC} = \frac{AB}{AC} = \frac{3}{4}\] Step 2 — Use the shared-height property: Triangles ABD and ACD share vertex A with bases on BC, so their areas are in the ratio of their bases. \[\frac{[ABD]}{[ABC]} = \frac{BD}{BD+DC} = \frac{3}{7}\] Step 3 — Compute: \[[ABD] = \tfrac{3}{7} \times 350 = 150 \text{ cm}^2\] Therefore 150 cm².

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Question 69archived

A boat is sailing towards a lighthouse of height 20√3 m at a certain speed. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse changes from 30° to 60° in 10 seconds. What is the time taken (in seconds) by the boat to reach the lighthouse from its initial position?

  1. A
    10
  2. B
    15
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    60
Show answer
B. 15

Let C be the base of the lighthouse, A the initial boat position and B the position after 10 s. Height \(CD = 20\sqrt{3}\) m. Step 1 — Find AC and BC: \[AC = \frac{20\sqrt{3}}{\tan 30^\circ} = 20\sqrt{3}\cdot\sqrt{3} = 60 \text{ m}\] \[BC = \frac{20\sqrt{3}}{\tan 60^\circ} = \frac{20\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}} = 20 \text{ m}\] Step 2 — Find speed: Distance AB = 60 - 20 = 40 m covered in 10 s, so speed = 4 m/s. Step 3 — Total time from A to C: \[t = \frac{AC}{\text{speed}} = \frac{60}{4} = 15 \text{ s}\] Therefore 15 seconds.

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Question 70archived

What is the value of [sec θ/(sec θ - 1)] + [sec θ/(sec θ + 1)]?

  1. A
    2 sin2 θ
  2. B
    2(1 + tan2 θ)
  3. C
    2 cosec 2θ
  4. D
    sin2 θ
Show answer
C. 2 cosec 2θ

Combine over a common denominator using \((a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2\): \[\frac{\sec\theta}{\sec\theta-1} + \frac{\sec\theta}{\sec\theta+1} = \frac{\sec\theta(\sec\theta+1)+\sec\theta(\sec\theta-1)}{\sec^2\theta-1} = \frac{2\sec^2\theta}{\sec^2\theta-1}\] Apply \(\sec^2\theta-1=\tan^2\theta\): \[\frac{2\sec^2\theta}{\tan^2\theta} = \frac{2/\cos^2\theta}{\sin^2\theta/\cos^2\theta} = \frac{2}{\sin^2\theta} = 2\,\mathrm{cosec}^2\theta\] Therefore 2 cosec² θ.

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Question 71archived

What is the ratio of runs scored against New Zealand and Bangladesh to the total runs scored

  1. A
    6 : 25
  2. B
    8 : 25
  3. C
    24 : 50
  4. D
    12 : 100
Show answer
A. 6 : 25

Let the total runs scored be a Runs scored against New Zealand and Bangladesh = [(16 + 8)/100] × a ∴ Required ratio = [24a/100]/a = 24/100 = 6/25

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Question 72archived

The runs scored by Pujara against South Africa is more than runs scored against Bangladesh by what percentage?

  1. A
    100
  2. B
    150
  3. C
    200
  4. D
    250
Show answer
C. 200

% runs scored by pujara against South Africa = 24% % runs scored by pujara against Bangladesh = 8% ∴ Required % = [(24 - 8)/8] × 100 = 200%

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Question 73archived

If Pujara has scored 1875 runs in total, then what is the difference in runs scored by Pujara against South Africa and New Zealand?

  1. A
    150
  2. B
    175
  3. C
    200
  4. D
    250
Show answer
A. 150

Given: total runs scored by pujara = 1875 Runs scored by Pujara against South Africa = (24/100)(1875) = 450 Runs scored by Pujara against New zealand = (16/100)(1875) = 300 ∴ Required difference = 450 - 300 = 150

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Question 74archived

What is the sectorial angle (in degrees) made by the runs scored against Australia in the given pie chart?

  1. A
    106.8
  2. B
    109.6
  3. C
    112.4
  4. D
    115.2
Show answer
D. 115.2

% of runs scored against Australia = 32% ∴ Sectorial angle made by it = (32/100)(360) = 115.2 degrees

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Question 75archived

What should be the least number of runs that Pujara must have scored in total (runs can only be integers)?

  1. A
    25
  2. B
    225
  3. C
    375
  4. D
    625
Show answer
A. 25

Given: Percentages of runs scored by pujara = 8, 16, 20, 24, 32 Now, HCF of the above numbers = 4 So, least number of runs that Pujara must have scored in total = 100/4 = 25

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Question 76archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'. I am vexed at him (1)/ for what all he has (2)/ done for him till date. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
A. 1

When the feeling of annoyance is directed at a person, the standard preposition is with, not at. "Vexed at" is used for situations or events ("vexed at the delay"), while "vexed with" is used for people. The phrase should read "I am vexed with him". Hence the error is in part (1).

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Question 77archived

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'. The Manager warned his team members (1)/ that if they persist in their (2)/ obstructionist attitude they would be punished. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Show answer
B. 2

The reporting verb "warned" is in the past tense, so by the sequence-of-tenses rule the verb in the reported conditional clause must also shift to the past. "Persist" (present) should become "persisted" to agree with "warned" and the past conditional "would be punished". Hence the error is in part (2).

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Question 78archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Both taciturn and ______, Daniel seldom spoke and never spent money.

  1. A
    wary
  2. B
    cheap
  3. C
    discreet
  4. D
    miserly
Show answer
D. miserly

The sentence describes two parallel traits: Daniel "seldom spoke" (taciturn) and "never spent money". The blank needs an adjective for someone extremely reluctant to spend. Miserly fits perfectly — it means hoarding money and spending as little as possible. "Wary" means cautious (of danger), "discreet" relates to speech/judgement, and "cheap" is informal and less precise than miserly for this register.

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Question 79archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. He was too _____ to make a statement before the Boss.

  1. A
    shy
  2. B
    tired
  3. C
    timid
  4. D
    coward
Show answer
C. timid

The structure "too ___ to" needs an adjective describing a state that prevents the action. Timid means lacking courage or confidence, which directly explains why he could not speak before the Boss. "Shy" describes general social discomfort, "tired" refers to fatigue (unrelated), and "coward" is a noun — "too coward" is ungrammatical (the adjective form is "cowardly").

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Question 80archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Reiterate

  1. A
    Abuse
  2. B
    Pretend
  3. C
    Detest
  4. D
    Repeat
Show answer
D. Repeat

Reiterate means to say or do something again, usually for emphasis. The clearest synonym among the options is Repeat. "Abuse" means to misuse or insult, "pretend" means to feign, and "detest" means to dislike intensely — none relate to saying again.

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Question 81archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Nincompoop

  1. A
    Wise
  2. B
    Fool
  3. C
    Lover
  4. D
    Companion
Show answer
B. Fool

Nincompoop is an informal noun for a foolish or silly person. The matching synonym is Fool. "Wise" is the opposite, while "lover" and "companion" describe relationships and have no link to foolishness.

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Question 82archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Pellucid

  1. A
    Torpid
  2. B
    Explicit
  3. C
    Murky
  4. D
    Limpid
Show answer
C. Murky

Pellucid means transparent, clear, or easily understood. Its opposite is something cloudy or unclear — Murky. "Limpid" is a synonym (also means clear), "explicit" is closer in meaning than opposite, and "torpid" (sluggish) is unrelated to clarity.

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Question 83archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Adamant

  1. A
    Rigid
  2. B
    Flexible
  3. C
    Fixed
  4. D
    Unshakable
Show answer
B. Flexible

Adamant means unyielding or refusing to change one's mind. Its opposite is Flexible — willing to bend or adapt. "Rigid", "fixed" and "unshakable" are all synonyms of adamant, not antonyms.

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Question 84archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase. To wrangle over an ass's shadow

  1. A
    To waste money over trifles
  2. B
    To punish a person severely for his arrogance
  3. C
    To quarrel over trifles
  4. D
    To keep away from extreme poverty
Show answer
C. To quarrel over trifles

The idiom "to wrangle over an ass's shadow" means to quarrel or argue noisily about something completely trivial or insignificant. "Wrangle" is a synonym for quarrel, and an "ass's shadow" stands for something worthless. Hence, the best meaning is to quarrel over trifles. "To waste money over trifles" misses the quarrelling element, while the other options are unrelated to the idiom's sense.

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Question 85archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase. Make one's flesh creep

  1. A
    To confuse someone
  2. B
    To flatter someone
  3. C
    To abuse someone
  4. D
    To frighten someone
Show answer
D. To frighten someone

The idiom "make one's flesh creep" describes causing a feeling of intense fear, horror, or revulsion — the skin-crawling sensation you get when something terrifies you. Hence it best means to frighten someone. "Confuse," "flatter," and "abuse" do not capture the element of dread or fear central to the idiom.

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Question 86archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". Father (would have been appreciated) your efforts if you had informed him.

  1. A
    would be appreciated
  2. B
    would have appreciated
  3. C
    should have been appreciated
  4. D
    No improvement
Show answer
B. would have appreciated

The "if" clause uses the past perfect ("had informed"), so this is a Type 3 conditional. The main clause must follow the pattern "would have + past participle" in the active voice, since Father is the doer of the appreciating. "Would have been appreciated" is passive and incorrectly makes the efforts the subject. The correct active form is "would have appreciated": "Father would have appreciated your efforts if you had informed him."

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Question 87archived

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. Neha was (surprised in) her result.

  1. A
    surprised to
  2. B
    surprised from
  3. C
    surprised at
  4. D
    No improvement
Show answer
C. surprised at

The adjective "surprised" takes the preposition "at" when followed by a noun denoting the cause of surprise (a result, news, reaction, etc.). "Surprised in" is non-idiomatic; "surprised to" pairs with an infinitive verb; "surprised from" is not standard English. Hence the correct phrase is "surprised at": "Neha was surprised at her result."

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Question 88archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. Study of tumours

  1. A
    Oenology
  2. B
    Oncology
  3. C
    Phrenology
  4. D
    Upology
Show answer
B. Oncology

Oncology is the branch of medicine that deals with the study, diagnosis, and treatment of tumours, especially cancerous ones. The prefix "onco-" comes from the Greek word for tumour or mass. Oenology is the study of wine, phrenology is the pseudoscience of skull bumps, and "upology" is not a recognised term.

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Question 89archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. The highest point

  1. A
    Tempest
  2. B
    Outpost
  3. C
    Archive
  4. D
    Zenith
Show answer
D. Zenith

Zenith denotes the highest point — either the point in the sky directly overhead or, figuratively, the peak of success or power. Tempest means a violent storm, outpost is a remote military station, and archive is a collection of historical records — none of which carry the sense of "highest point."

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Question 90archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Literary
  2. B
    Leakeage
  3. C
    Laudable
  4. D
    Loafer
Show answer
B. Leakeage

The misspelt word is Leakeage. The correct spelling is Leakage — formed by adding the suffix "-age" directly to "leak," with no extra "e" before it. Literary, Laudable, and Loafer are all spelt correctly.

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Question 91archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Anasthetic
  2. B
    Obliterate
  3. C
    Concurrence
  4. D
    Blithesome
Show answer
A. Anasthetic

The misspelt word is Anasthetic. The accepted spellings are Anesthetic (American English) or Anaesthetic (British English) — never "Anasthetic." Obliterate, Concurrence, and Blithesome are all spelt correctly.

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Question 92archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P: Yet making loans to poor people is hardly a Poverty Cure. Q: Segmenting the industry, might be worthwhile if it allows more of the poor to get access to credit. R: Multinational corporations could take the top micro-finance institutions to the next level, and the remainder could take the responsibility of development groups and regional banks. S: Property rights and the role of law matter too.

  1. A
    PRQS
  2. B
    QRPS
  3. C
    SPQR
  4. D
    RSPQ
Show answer
B. QRPS

Q introduces the central idea — segmenting the micro-finance industry to widen credit access for the poor. R explains how this segmentation could work (multinationals at the top, development groups and regional banks below), so R follows Q. P then offers a qualification ("Yet making loans... is hardly a Poverty Cure"), and S adds the further factors ("Property rights and the role of law matter too") that complete the argument. Hence the coherent order is QRPS.

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Question 93archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P: But the scenario has quite changed nowadays by allocating a special budget of funds for security. Q: In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher when compared to others. R: India earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less importance to other departments. S: This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world especially emerging after the 9/11 terror attack in the U.S.

  1. A
    PRQS
  2. B
    SPQR
  3. C
    QSPR
  4. D
    RPSQ
Show answer
D. RPSQ

R sets the historical context ("India earlier days gave more importance to industry"). P uses the contrast marker "But" to introduce the change in scenario, so it follows R. S begins with "This is because," giving the reason — the post-9/11 rise in terrorism — so it follows P. Q then provides the concrete evidence: a higher military budget over the last ten years. Hence the logical order is RPSQ.

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Question 94archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. One should keep one's word.

  1. A
    A word should be kept
  2. B
    A word should be keeping
  3. C
    One's word has to be kept
  4. D
    One's word should be kept by us
Show answer
A. A word should be kept

To turn an active sentence with a modal into the passive, the object becomes the subject and the verb takes the form modal + be + past participle. The general agent "one" is omitted. So "One should keep one's word" becomes "A word should be kept" — generalising "one's word" to "a word" and using "should be kept." The other options either use wrong tense ("be keeping"), wrong modal ("has to"), or introduce a wrong agent ("by us").

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Question 95archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in the Indirect/Direct speech. The old man said, "Thanks I shall never forget this kindness, Ankit."

  1. A
    The old man applauded Ankit for his kindness and he shall never forget Ankit
  2. B
    The old man thanked Ankit and assured him that he would never forget his kindness
  3. C
    Ankit was being thanked by the old man for his kindness towards an old man
  4. D
    The old man said thank you to Ankit for his kindness.
Show answer
B. The old man thanked Ankit and assured him that he would never forget his kindness

In reported speech, "Thanks" becomes the reporting verb "thanked", the pronoun "I" shifts to "he," the modal "shall" changes to "would," and "this kindness" becomes "his kindness" (Ankit's). The assurance clause is linked with "assured him that." Hence: "The old man thanked Ankit and assured him that he would never forget his kindness." Option 1 distorts the meaning, option 3 wrongly uses passive voice, and option 4 omits the assurance entirely.

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Question 96archived

National integration means _____ all the people of the nation into a single whole.

  1. A
    segregating
  2. B
    combining
  3. C
    residing
  4. D
    complying
Show answer
B. combining

The sentence describes uniting "all the people of the nation into a single whole," so the blank needs a verb meaning "to bring together." Combining fits exactly — it means joining diverse elements into one unified whole. "Segregating" means the opposite (separating); "residing" means living in a place; "complying" means obeying — none describe the act of unification.

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Question 97archived

It is a _____ that binds together

  1. A
    sentiment
  2. B
    resources
  3. C
    essentials
  4. D
    finances
Show answer
A. sentiment

National integration is described as something that "binds together all people" regardless of religion, caste or language — i.e., an abstract unifying feeling. The word that captures this is sentiment, meaning a shared feeling or emotional attitude. "Resources," "essentials," and "finances" are concrete or material in nature and cannot describe what emotionally binds a nation together.

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Question 98archived

all people in one _____ bond no matter what their religion, caste, language or history

  1. A
    real
  2. B
    common
  3. C
    nominal
  4. D
    similar
Show answer
B. common

The bond is one that unites every citizen despite differences of religion, caste, language or history — so the adjective must mean "shared by all." Common fits precisely: a "common bond" is one shared equally by everyone. "Real" describes authenticity, not sharedness; "nominal" means "in name only" (the opposite of a binding force); "similar" implies likeness rather than a single shared bond.

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Question 99archived

It is a _____ cementing force whereby all kinds of people

  1. A
    weakening
  2. B
    natural
  3. C
    strong
  4. D
    settled
Show answer
C. strong

The blank modifies "cementing force" — the adjective must convey the force's power to bind diverse people into one nation. "Strong" captures exactly this binding effectiveness. "Weakening" is the opposite of binding; "natural" describes origin, not strength; "settled" describes a state, not the force's capacity. Hence the correct word is strong.

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Question 100archived

live _____ peacefully and can identify themselves as a part and parcel of a nation.

  1. A
    separately
  2. B
    jointly
  3. C
    happily
  4. D
    together
Show answer
D. together

The passage centres on national integration — diverse people uniting as one nation. The blank pairs with "peacefully" to describe their mode of coexistence, which must signify unity. "Separately" contradicts integration; "jointly" implies a shared task, not shared living; "happily" describes feeling, not togetherness. Together directly expresses the unified coexistence the passage describes.

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