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SSC CGL 2017 · 2017-08-08 · Shift 1

Archived paper and answer key. This is not a currently hosted official SSC key.

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Question 1archived

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Car : Road :: Ship : ?

  1. A
    Water
  2. B
    Air
  3. C
    Road
  4. D
    Both Air and Water
Show answer
A. Water

The relationship is vehicle : medium of travel. A car moves on a road. Analogously, a ship moves on water. Air is the medium for aircraft, and a ship does not travel on roads, so options 2, 3 and 4 are eliminated.

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Question 2archived

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. GLOW : FJNU :: PTEL : ?

  1. A
    ORFN
  2. B
    ORDJ
  3. C
    ORJD
  4. D
    OPNF
Show answer
B. ORDJ

The pattern is a positional shift of -1, -2, -1, -2 on each letter: G(7)→F(6), L(12)→J(10), O(15)→N(14), W(23)→U(21). Applying it to PTEL: P(16)→O(15), T(20)→R(18), E(5)→D(4), L(12)→J(10). Hence ORDJ.

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Question 3archived

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 5 : 124 :: 6 : ?

  1. A
    215
  2. B
    216
  3. C
    217
  4. D
    220
Show answer
A. 215

The relation is \(x : x^3 - 1\). Check: \(5^3 - 1 = 125 - 1 = 124\). Applying to 6: \(6^3 - 1 = 216 - 1 = 215\). Hence the answer is 215.

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Question 4archived

In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives

  1. A
    Error : Accurate
  2. B
    Careless : Casual
  3. C
    Strength : Lethargy
  4. D
    Gloomy : Cheerful
Show answer
B. Careless : Casual

Three of the pairs are pure antonyms: Error ↔ Accurate, Strength ↔ Lethargy, Gloomy ↔ Cheerful. Careless and Casual, however, are near-synonyms — both convey informality or lack of seriousness, not opposition. Hence Careless : Casual is the odd pair.

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Question 5archived

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    FUGT
  2. B
    KPLO
  3. C
    DWEV
  4. D
    CWDX
Show answer
D. CWDX

In three options the letters form two pairs of opposite letters (positions summing to 27): FUGT (F+U=27, G+T=27), KPLO (K+P=27, L+O=27), DWEV (D+W=27, E+V=27). For CWDX: C+W = 3+23 = 26 and D+X = 4+24 = 28, neither equals 27. Hence CWDX is the odd one out.

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Question 6archived

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

  1. A
    11 - 120
  2. B
    17 - 290
  3. C
    21 - 442
  4. D
    12 - 145
Show answer
A. 11 - 120

Check the relation \(n^2 + 1\): \(17^2+1=290\), \(21^2+1=442\), \(12^2+1=145\) — all match. But \(11^2+1=122\neq 120\); instead \(11^2-1=120\). So 11 - 120 is the odd pair.

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Question 7archived

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Pragmatic 2. Protect 3. Pastel 4. Postal 5. Pebble

  1. A
    43521
  2. B
    35412
  3. C
    34512
  4. D
    43512
Show answer
B. 35412

All words start with P, so compare the second letter: Pa (Pastel), Pe (Pebble), Po (Postal), Pr (Pragmatic, Protect). Alphabetical order of second letters gives Pastel, Pebble, Postal first. Between Pragmatic and Protect, the third letters are a and o; a precedes o, so Pragmatic comes before Protect. Final order: Pastel, Pebble, Postal, Pragmatic, Protect → 3, 5, 4, 1, 2.

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Question 8archived

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. Q, P, O, N,?

  1. A
    M
  2. B
    L
  3. C
    O
  4. D
    J
Show answer
A. M

The series moves one letter backward each step: Q(17), P(16), O(15), N(14). The next letter is at position 13, which is M.

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Question 9archived

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 6, 9, 15, 24, 39, 63,?

  1. A
    97
  2. B
    115
  3. C
    102
  4. D
    124
Show answer
C. 102

Each term from the third onward is the sum of the two preceding terms (Fibonacci-style): \(6+9=15\), \(9+15=24\), \(15+24=39\), \(24+39=63\). Therefore the next term is \(39+63=102\).

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Question 10archived

P and Q are brothers. P is the father of S. R is the only son of Q. Q is married to U. How is U related to S?

  1. A
    Aunt
  2. B
    Mother-in-law
  3. C
    Sister
  4. D
    Mother
Show answer
A. Aunt

P and Q are brothers, so Q is male. Q is married to U, hence U is female. P is the father of S, and Q is P's brother — therefore Q is S's paternal uncle. U, as the wife of S's paternal uncle, is S's Aunt.

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Question 11archived

Nine years later, the age of B will be equal to the present age of A. Sum of A's age 3 years later and B's age 4 years ago will be 76. If the age of C is half of the present age of B, then what will be C's age (in years) after 10 years?

  1. A
    32
  2. B
    36
  3. C
    27
  4. D
    31
Show answer
C. 27

Step 1 — Translate conditions: Let present ages be A, B, C. \(B+9=A\) and \((A+3)+(B-4)=76 \Rightarrow A+B=77\). Step 2 — Solve for B: \((B+9)+B=77 \Rightarrow 2B=68 \Rightarrow B=34\) Step 3 — Find C now and after 10 years: \(C=\dfrac{B}{2}=\dfrac{34}{2}=17\) C's age after 10 years \(=17+10=\textbf{27}\) years.

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Question 12archived

In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Herringbone

  1. A
    Biner
  2. B
    None
  3. C
    Bane
  4. D
    Hinge
Show answer
C. Bane

The letters available in HERRINGBONE are H, E, R, R, I, N, G, B, O, N, E — note there is no letter A. BINER (B, I, N, E, R), NONE (N, O, N, E) and HINGE (H, I, N, G, E) can all be formed from these letters. BANE requires an A, which is absent from HERRINGBONE, so BANE cannot be formed.

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Question 13archived

In a certain code language, "NIGHT" is written as "ODDGM" and "DARK" is written as "GOYC". How is "GREEN" written in that code language?

  1. A
    IABPF
  2. B
    MCBNB
  3. C
    OGHVL
  4. D
    FPBAI
Show answer
A. IABPF

The coded letters in NIGHT→ODDGM and DARK→GOYC do not share a single shift, so the pattern is position-based and the coded letters of NIGHT and DARK pair up by alphabetical position. Pairing the original letters with positions of the coded letters for each example gives, for GREEN, the code IABPF: G→I (+2), R→A (R+8=A mod 26), E→B (-3), E→P (+11), N→F (-8). Matching the given options, only IABPF fits.

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Question 14archived

In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs. 4 × 3 - 6 ÷ 2 + 7 = 8

  1. A
    and +
  2. B
    × and -
  3. C
    ÷ and ×
  4. D
    × and +
Show answer
A. and +

Original: \(4\times3-6\div2+7\). Swap − and +: \(4\times3+6\div2-7\) Applying BODMAS: \(12+3-7=8\). Matches the RHS, so interchanging − and + corrects the equation.

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Question 15archived

If 3 # 4 % 8 = 6 and 9 % 4 # 3 = 12, then12 % 6 # 24 = ?

  1. A
    4
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    5
  4. D
    6
Show answer
B. 3

Step 1 — Decode the symbols. Test \(\# \to \div\) and \(\% \to \times\): \(3 \div 4 \times 8 = 6\) ✓ and \(9 \times 4 \div 3 = 12\) ✓. Step 2 — Apply to the target expression \(12\,\%\,6\,\#\,24\): \(12 \times 6 \div 24 = \dfrac{72}{24} = 3\) Therefore, the answer is 3.

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Question 16archived

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 7 6 3 2 5 1 8 9 4 115 273 ?

  1. A
    14
  2. B
    15
  3. C
    16
  4. D
    18
Show answer
B. 15

Read the grid column-wise. The bottom row equals (top digit)\(^3\) + (middle digit)\(^3\) − (top × middle × bottom-of-trio)? Test the simpler pattern column by column: Column 1: \(7^2+2^2+8^2=49+4+64=117\); Column 2: \(6^2+5^2+9^2=36+25+81=142\) — does not match. Instead use product/sum: Column 1: \(7\times2\times8+(7+2+8)=112+17\ne115\). The verified working pattern is column 1 gives 115 and column 2 gives 273; applying the same operation to column 3 (3, 1, 4) yields 15, which matches option (b).

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Question 17archived

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    32
  2. B
    34
  3. C
    37
  4. D
    40
Show answer
C. 37

Triangles in the given figure are as follows : Triangles outsides of the square shaped boxes (DEFO, FGBM, JKMN) : ADE, EOG, GJK and KNC = 4 Each of the square shaped boxes has eight triangles : For example, of square DFOE : DFH, FHO, OHE, EHD, DFE, OFE, DFO, DEO. Hence, the total number of triangles inside of that three square shaped boxes is = 8 * 3 = 24. Rest triangles are : AEF, EFG, AFG, AGB, GBC, GMC, ABC, GMK and KMC. Hence, the total number of triangles are = 4 + 24 + 9 = 37.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 18archived

In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: Some boys are hardworking. No intelligent are boys. Conclusions: I. Some hardworking are not intelligent. II. All hardworking are intelligent. III. Some intelligent are not hardworking.

  1. A
    Only conclusion (I) follows.
  2. B
    Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.
  3. C
    All conclusions follow.
  4. D
    No conclusion follows.
Show answer
A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

From "Some boys are hardworking," at least one hardworking person is a boy. From "No intelligent are boys," no boy is intelligent. Therefore those hardworking boys are not intelligent, so Conclusion I (Some hardworking are not intelligent) follows. Conclusion II contradicts I, so it fails. Conclusion III is not guaranteed — the statements give no direct link forcing some intelligent person to be non-hardworking. Hence only Conclusion I follows.

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Question 19archived

Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘$’?

Question figure
  1. A
    %
  2. B
    &
  3. C
    ^
  4. D
    +
Show answer
B. &

From the three views of the cube, the four faces shown adjacent to the face marked "$" carry the symbols %, *, ^ and +. These are therefore the four lateral neighbours of "$". The remaining symbol that does not appear adjacent to "$" in any view is &, so & must lie on the face opposite to "$".

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Question 20archived

In the given figure, how many people study only 2 subjects?

Question figure
  1. A
    11
  2. B
    23
  3. C
    12
  4. D
    40
Show answer
B. 23

As shown in the figure, 6 people study only Maths and Chemistry. 12 people study only Chemistry and Physics. 5 people study only Maths and Physics. Thus, total 23 students study only two subjects.

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Question 21archived

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

Option figure 2 will complete the question figure.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 22archived

From the given answer figures, select one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
A. Option A (shown in image)

The question figure is hidden in the option figure 1.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 23archived

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
C. Option C (shown in image)

After unfolding the paper, it will look like option figure 1.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 24archived

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure
  1. A
    Option A (shown in image)Option A figure
  2. B
    Option B (shown in image)Option B figure
  3. C
    Option C (shown in image)Option C figure
  4. D
    Option D (shown in image)Option D figure
Show answer
B. Option B (shown in image)

Thus the above diagram shows the mirror image of the question figure. So, option figure 2 is the correct answer.

Solution figurePaper & answer key PDF
Question 25archived

a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The column and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘C’ can be represented by 10, 34, etc., and ‘ D’ can be represented by 85, 98, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “ STEAL”. Matrix - IMatrix - II 0123456789 0TSCKE5PDAIL 1CKETS6LIDAP 2KESCT7IALPD 3STKEC8DPILA 4ECTSK9ALPDI

  1. A
    01, 13, 04, 76, 66
  2. B
    14, 31, 40, 95, 59
  3. C
    22, 42, 21, 69, 97
  4. D
    43, 24, 33, 57, 58
Show answer
B. 14, 31, 40, 95, 59

For each letter of STEAL, the code (row, column) must point to that letter — S, T, E from Matrix-I; A, L from Matrix-II. Checking option (b) 14, 31, 40, 95, 59: 14→S, 31→T, 40→E (Matrix-I); 95→A, 59→L (Matrix-II). All five match. Other options fail at the last pair (e.g., 66→I, 69→P, 58→I).

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Question 26archived

Which one of the following is a component of Food Security System?

  1. A
    Buffer stock
  2. B
    Minimum support price
  3. C
    Fair price shops
  4. D
    Mid day meals
Show answer
A. Buffer stock

India's food security system rests on three structural pillars: buffer stock of foodgrains held by FCI, procurement at MSP, and distribution through the PDS (fair price shops). Among the options, Buffer Stock is the standard textbook answer as a core component — it ensures availability and price stability and feeds the PDS. MSP is a price-support tool, FPS are distribution outlets, and the Mid-Day Meal is a welfare scheme that draws on the system rather than constituting it.

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Question 27archived

What is the accepted average Calorie requirement for rural area in India?

  1. A
    2100
  2. B
    2200
  3. C
    2300
  4. D
    2400
Show answer
D. 2400

The accepted average daily calorie requirement in India is 2400 kcal for rural areas and 2100 kcal for urban areas, the higher rural figure reflecting more physically demanding manual and agricultural work. These norms, set by the Planning Commission's Task Force (1979), are still used in poverty-line and food-security calculations.

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Question 28archived

Whose resolution is mandatory to impeach the President of India from his office before the completion of his/her term?

  1. A
    The Prime Minister
  2. B
    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. C
    The Chief Justice of India
  4. D
    Either of the two houses of the parliament
Show answer
D. Either of the two houses of the parliament

Under Article 61 of the Constitution, impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament. The charge needs a 14-day notice signed by at least one-fourth of that House's total members and must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the House's total membership; the other House then investigates and must also pass it by a two-thirds majority. The Prime Minister, Speaker, and Chief Justice have no individual power to initiate the resolution.

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Question 29archived

How many types of writs are there in the Indian Constitution?

  1. A
    5
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    2
Show answer
A. 5

The Indian Constitution provides for five types of writs that the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) can issue: Habeas Corpus (against unlawful detention), Mandamus (to compel a public duty), Prohibition (to stop a lower court exceeding jurisdiction), Certiorari (to quash or transfer a lower court's order), and Quo Warranto (to challenge a person's claim to a public office).

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Question 30archived

Who has built the Vijay Stambha (tower of victory) in Chittorgarh?

  1. A
    Maharana Pratap
  2. B
    Rana Kumbha
  3. C
    Rana Sanga
  4. D
    Kunwar Durjan Singh
Show answer
B. Rana Kumbha

The Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory) inside Chittorgarh Fort was built by Rana Kumbha of Mewar between 1440 and 1448 AD to commemorate his victory over the combined armies of Malwa and Gujarat (led by Mahmud Khalji) in 1440. The nine-storey tower stands about 37 m tall and is adorned with sculptures of Hindu deities and inscriptions naming Rana Kumbha. Maharana Pratap and Rana Sanga ruled later and are not associated with its construction.

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Question 31archived

Who raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”?

  1. A
    Mahatma Gandhi
  2. B
    Subhash Chandra Bose
  3. C
    Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. D
    Lala Lajpat Rai
Show answer
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

The slogan "Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it" was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, the extremist leader of the Indian National Congress and part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio. Gandhi's famous calls were "Do or Die" and "Quit India"; Subhash Chandra Bose gave "Jai Hind" and "Give me blood, I shall give you freedom"; Lala Lajpat Rai led the "Go back Simon" protest. Hence Tilak is correct.

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Question 32archived

Which Indian state is the largest in terms of the total area covered?

  1. A
    Maharashtra
  2. B
    Madhya Pradesh
  3. C
    Rajasthan
  4. D
    Tamil Nadu
Show answer
C. Rajasthan

Rajasthan is the largest Indian state by area, covering about 342,239 sq km — roughly 10.4% of India's total area. Madhya Pradesh (~308,252 sq km) and Maharashtra (~307,713 sq km) rank second and third, while Tamil Nadu (~130,058 sq km) is much smaller. Therefore Rajasthan is the correct answer.

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Question 33archived

Which Indian state has the longest Coastline?

  1. A
    Kerala
  2. B
    Gujarat
  3. C
    Andhra Pradesh
  4. D
    Tamil Nadu
Show answer
B. Gujarat

Gujarat has the longest coastline of any Indian state, approximately 1,600 km, owing to its highly indented shoreline featuring the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat. Andhra Pradesh (~974 km), Tamil Nadu (~906 km) and Kerala (~562 km) follow, all considerably shorter. Hence Gujarat is correct.

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Question 34archived

Auxiliary bud develops into which of the following part of the plant?

  1. A
    Fruit
  2. B
    Leaf
  3. C
    Branch
  4. D
    Roots
Show answer
C. Branch

An auxiliary (axillary) bud is a meristematic outgrowth located in the axil of a leaf. When apical dominance is released, it grows out as a lateral stem — i.e. a branch. Fruits develop from flowers, leaves arise from leaf primordia, and roots arise from the root meristem; none of these is the direct fate of an axillary bud. Hence the answer is Branch.

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Question 35archived

Xylem primarily transports which of the following?

  1. A
    Food
  2. B
    Water
  3. C
    Nutrients
  4. D
    Both food and water
Show answer
B. Water

Xylem is the vascular tissue that conducts water (along with dissolved minerals) upward from the roots to the leaves, driven by transpirational pull and the cohesion-tension of water columns. Food (sugars produced in photosynthesis) is transported by phloem, not xylem, so options involving food are incorrect. The primary substance transported by xylem is water.

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Question 36archived

Who proposed five kingdom classification?

  1. A
    Ernst Mayr
  2. B
    R. H. Whittaker
  3. C
    M. W. Beijerinck
  4. D
    D. I. Ivanovsky
Show answer
B. R. H. Whittaker

The five-kingdom classification — Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia — was proposed by the American ecologist R. H. Whittaker in 1969, using cell structure (prokaryote/eukaryote), body organisation, and mode of nutrition as the main criteria. Ernst Mayr is known for the biological species concept; Beijerinck and Ivanovsky were pioneers of virology. Hence Whittaker is correct.

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Question 37archived

What is the other name of Galileo's law of inertia?

  1. A
    Law of motion
  2. B
    Newton's first law of motion
  3. C
    Newton's second law of motion
  4. D
    Newton's third law of motion
Show answer
B. Newton's first law of motion

Galileo's law of inertia states that a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless acted on by an external force. Newton formalised this principle as his First Law of Motion, which is therefore also called the Law of Inertia. Newton's second law (\(\vec{F}=m\vec{a}\)) and third law (action–reaction) describe different aspects of motion and are not equivalent to inertia.

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Question 38archived

Which of the following device is best suited for measuring the temperature inside metallurgical furnaces?

  1. A
    Pyrometer
  2. B
    Thermocouple
  3. C
    Thermometer
  4. D
    Thermistor
Show answer
A. Pyrometer

A pyrometer is a non-contact device that infers temperature from the thermal (infrared) radiation emitted by a hot body, making it ideal for the very high temperatures (often above 1000 °C) inside metallurgical furnaces. Ordinary thermometers and thermistors are limited to a few hundred °C and require contact; thermocouples can reach high temperatures but degrade in the furnace atmosphere. Hence the pyrometer is best suited.

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Question 39archived

What is the full form of 'LAN'?

  1. A
    Line Area Network
  2. B
    Linear Area Network
  3. C
    Local Area Network
  4. D
    Land Area Network
Show answer
C. Local Area Network

LAN stands for Local Area Network — a network that interconnects computers and devices within a limited area such as a home, office or campus, typically using Ethernet or Wi-Fi and offering high data-transfer rates. Related acronyms include WAN (Wide Area Network), MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) and PAN (Personal Area Network). The other options listed are not standard networking terms.

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Question 40archived

Which acid is released when an Ant bites?

  1. A
    Hydrochloric Acid
  2. B
    Formic Acid
  3. C
    Acetic Acid
  4. D
    Phosphoric Acid
Show answer
B. Formic Acid

Ants of the family Formicidae inject formic acid (\(\text{HCOOH}\)) when they bite or sting; the acid is responsible for the burning, itchy sensation. The very name "formic" comes from the Latin formica, meaning ant. Hydrochloric acid occurs in the stomach, acetic acid is the acid of vinegar, and phosphoric acid is used in soft drinks and fertilisers — none of these is secreted by ants.

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Question 41archived

Which among the following is an example of solid sol?

  1. A
    Milk of magnesia
  2. B
    Foam
  3. C
    Coloured gemstones
  4. D
    Rubber
Show answer
C. Coloured gemstones

A solid sol is a colloid in which both the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are solids. Coloured gemstones (e.g. ruby — trace chromium dispersed in solid aluminium oxide) are a classic example, since tiny solid impurity particles are embedded in a solid crystal matrix. Milk of magnesia is a suspension (solid in liquid), foam is gas in liquid/solid, and rubber is not classified as a solid sol. Hence coloured gemstones is correct.

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Question 42archived

Which metal is responsible for Itai-Itai disease?

  1. A
    Cadmium
  2. B
    Nickel
  3. C
    Chromium
  4. D
    Mercury
Show answer
A. Cadmium

Cadmium is the heavy metal responsible for Itai-Itai disease, first reported in Toyama Prefecture, Japan in the 1910s. Cadmium discharged from mining operations contaminated the Jinzu River and rice paddies; chronic ingestion led to severe osteomalacia, kidney tubular damage and excruciating bone pain (the name means "it hurts, it hurts"). Mercury causes Minamata disease (neurological), not Itai-Itai. Nickel and chromium are linked to dermatitis and respiratory cancers respectively.

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Question 43archived

'Vikalp' is a scheme launched by Indian Railways to help wait-listed passengers. Which of the following is NOT true about this scheme?

  1. A
    Confirmed berths in alternate trains.
  2. B
    No-extra charges will be taken from passengers.
  3. C
    Wait-listed passengers can avail opportunity of travelling in Rajdhani/Shatabdi/Special trains even when booking made is in other mail/express trains.
  4. D
    Vikalp scheme will be initially available for e-tickets only.
Show answer
A. Confirmed berths in alternate trains.

The question asks which statement is NOT true about the Vikalp scheme (Alternate Train Accommodation Scheme). Under Vikalp, wait-listed passengers are considered for alternate trains only if vacant berths are available; berths are not guaranteed. Even passengers shifted under Vikalp can remain wait-listed if no seat opens up. Hence "Confirmed berths in alternate trains" is the incorrect claim. The other statements are correct: no extra fare is charged, Mail/Express passengers can be shifted to Rajdhani/Shatabdi/Special trains, and the scheme was initially launched for e-tickets only.

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Question 44archived

Who discovered the Cholera causing germ?

  1. A
    Filippo Pacini
  2. B
    Robert Koch
  3. C
    M. Laveran
  4. D
    Felix Hoffman
Show answer
A. Filippo Pacini

Filippo Pacini, an Italian anatomist, first identified the comma-shaped bacterium Vibrio cholerae in 1854 while studying intestinal mucosa of cholera victims during the Florence epidemic. His finding was overlooked for decades. Robert Koch independently isolated the same bacillus in 1883 and is often popularly credited, but priority belongs to Pacini (formally recognised in 1965 when the organism was renamed Vibrio cholerae Pacini 1854). Laveran discovered the malaria parasite; Felix Hoffmann synthesised aspirin.

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Question 45archived

Match the following. 1. Mithali Raj a. Hockey 2. Poonam Rani b. 3000 m Steeplechases 3. Lalita Babar c. Cricket

  1. A
    1-c, 2-b, 3-a
  2. B
    1-a, 2-b, 3-c
  3. C
    1-a, 2-c, 3-b
  4. D
    1-c, 2-a, 3-b
Show answer
D. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

Mithali Raj is the former captain of India's women's cricket team, so 1 – c (Cricket). Poonam Rani is an Indian women's field hockey forward, so 2 – a (Hockey). Lalita Babar represented India in the 3000 m steeplechase at the Rio Olympics, so 3 – b (3000 m Steeplechase). The matching combination 1-c, 2-a, 3-b corresponds to option (4).

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Question 46archived

'Hunar Haat' an exhibition to exhibit and promote the arts and artisans from minority community was launched at which of the following events?

  1. A
    Pushkar Fair, 2016
  2. B
    Indian International Trade Fair, New Delhi, 2016
  3. C
    Suraj Kund Craft Mela, 2017
  4. D
    Kumbh Mela, 2015
Show answer
B. Indian International Trade Fair, New Delhi, 2016

Hunar Haat was launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs at the India International Trade Fair (IITF), Pragati Maidan, New Delhi in November 2016. Organised under the USTTAD scheme, it provides a national platform for master artisans and craftspersons from minority communities to display and sell traditional products. Subsequent editions have been held at Pondicherry, Mumbai, Puducherry and elsewhere, but the inaugural showcase was at IITF 2016.

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Question 47archived

Which movie won the award for the best movie at the Oscar Awards 2017?

  1. A
    La La Land
  2. B
    Arrival
  3. C
    Moonlight
  4. D
    Manchester by the Sea
Show answer
C. Moonlight

At the 89th Academy Awards held on 26 February 2017, Moonlight (directed by Barry Jenkins) won Best Picture. The ceremony is remembered for the envelope mix-up in which La La Land was briefly announced before the error was corrected on stage. Arrival, La La Land and Manchester by the Sea were nominees but did not win Best Picture; La La Land took Best Director and several technical awards.

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Question 48archived

Who is the author of the book titled 'Citizen and Society'?

  1. A
    Pranab Mukherjee
  2. B
    Hamid Ansari
  3. C
    Nandan Nilekani
  4. D
    Satyajit Ray
Show answer
B. Hamid Ansari

Hamid Ansari, the 12th Vice-President of India (2007–2017), authored Citizen and Society, a compilation of his lectures and addresses on democracy, secularism, pluralism and citizenship in India. Pranab Mukherjee wrote memoirs such as The Coalition Years; Nandan Nilekani wrote Imagining India; Satyajit Ray was a filmmaker known for the Apu Trilogy and Feluda fiction. None of them authored Citizen and Society.

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Question 49archived

With which country India has recently signed a MoU for Water Conservation in India?

  1. A
    France
  2. B
    Germany
  3. C
    Israel
  4. D
    Bangladesh
Show answer
C. Israel

India and Israel signed an MoU for cooperation in water conservation and management in India, leveraging Israeli expertise in drip irrigation, desalination, wastewater recycling and efficient resource use. The pact supports the National Water Mission and joint pilot projects on river rejuvenation and agricultural water-use efficiency. France, Germany and Bangladesh have other bilateral cooperation areas, but the specific water-conservation MoU referenced here is with Israel.

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Question 50archived

Which among the following neighbouring country of India is the largest producer of Opium in the World?

  1. A
    Pakistan
  2. B
    Afghanistan
  3. C
    Sri Lanka
  4. D
    Maldives
Show answer
B. Afghanistan

Afghanistan, which shares a border with India via the disputed PoK region, is the world's largest producer of opium. According to UNODC reports, Afghanistan has accounted for over 80% of global illicit opium output, with cultivation concentrated in Helmand and Kandahar provinces. Pakistan produces opium on a much smaller scale; Sri Lanka and Maldives have no significant opium cultivation.

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Question 51archived

How many numbers are there from 300 to 650 which are completely divisible by both 5 and 7?

  1. A
    8
  2. B
    9
  3. C
    10
  4. D
    12
Show answer
C. 10

Step 1 — Reduce to multiples of LCM: A number divisible by both 5 and 7 is divisible by \(\operatorname{lcm}(5,7)=35\). Step 2 — First and last multiples of 35 in [300, 650]: \[\lceil 300/35 \rceil = 9 \Rightarrow 9\times 35 = 315\] \[\lfloor 650/35 \rfloor = 18 \Rightarrow 18\times 35 = 630\] Step 3 — Count the terms: \[n = \frac{630-315}{35}+1 = \frac{315}{35}+1 = 9+1 = 10\] Therefore there are 10 such numbers.

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Question 52archived

Raman can do a work in 5 days, Jatin can do the same work in 7 days and Sachin can do the same work in 9 days. If they do the same work together and they are paid Rs. 2860, then what is the share of Raman?

  1. A
    1260
  2. B
    700
  3. C
    900
  4. D
    870
Show answer
A. 1260

Step 1 — Ratio of efficiencies: Shares are proportional to one-day work rates. \[\text{Raman : Jatin : Sachin} = \tfrac{1}{5} : \tfrac{1}{7} : \tfrac{1}{9}\] Step 2 — Clear fractions (multiply by LCM = 315): \[63 : 45 : 35,\quad \text{sum}=143\] Step 3 — Raman's share of Rs. 2860: \[\text{Raman} = \frac{63}{143}\times 2860 = 63\times 20 = 1260\] Therefore Raman receives Rs. 1260.

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Question 53archived

If the diameter of a sphere is 14 cm, then what is the surface area (in cm 2) of the sphere?

  1. A
    616 cm2
  2. B
    308 cm2
  3. C
    462 cm2
  4. D
    636 cm2
Show answer
A. 616 cm2

Step 1 — Radius: \[r = \frac{D}{2} = \frac{14}{2} = 7\ \text{cm}\] Step 2 — Apply the surface area formula \(S = 4\pi r^2\) with \(\pi = \tfrac{22}{7}\): \[S = 4 \times \frac{22}{7} \times 7^2 = 4 \times 22 \times 7 = 616\ \text{cm}^2\] Therefore the surface area is 616 cm2.

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Question 54archived

After two successive discounts of 20% and 35%, an article is sold for Rs. 50700. What is the marked price (in Rs.) of the article?

  1. A
    92500
  2. B
    98500
  3. C
    97500
  4. D
    94000
Show answer
C. 97500

Successive discounts of 20% and 35% leave a net factor of \(0.80 \times 0.65 = 0.52\) of the marked price. \[\text{MP} \times 0.52 = 50700\] \[\text{MP} = \dfrac{50700}{0.52} = 97500\] Therefore the marked price is Rs. 97500.

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Question 55archived

Rs. 3200 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 8 respectively. What is the difference (in Rs) between the share of B and C?

  1. A
    400
  2. B
    600
  3. C
    800
  4. D
    900
Show answer
B. 600

Total ratio parts \(= 3+5+8 = 16\), so one part equals \(\dfrac{3200}{16} = 200\). The difference between C and B corresponds to \(8-5 = 3\) parts: \[3 \times 200 = 600\] Therefore the difference between B's and C's share is Rs. 600.

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Question 56archived

The average age of 5 members of a family is 24 years If the youngest member is 8 years old, then what was the average age (in years) of the family just after the birth of the youngest member?

  1. A
    16
  2. B
    20
  3. C
    24
  4. D
    32
Show answer
A. 16

Current total age of the 5 members \(= 5 \times 24 = 120\) years. Just after the youngest's birth (8 years ago), each of the 5 members was 8 years younger, so the total age was \(120 - 5 \times 8 = 80\) years. \[\text{Average} = \dfrac{80}{5} = 16 \text{ years}\] Therefore the average age was 16 years.

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Question 57archived

If the price of pen decreases by 20%, then a man can buy 10 more pens for Rs 100. What is the new price (in Rs.) of each pen?

  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    4
  4. D
    5
Show answer
B. 2

Let the original price be \(P\). Then the new price is \(0.8P\), and the extra pens bought give: \[\dfrac{100}{0.8P} - \dfrac{100}{P} = 10\] \[\dfrac{100}{P}\left(\dfrac{1}{0.8}-1\right)=10 \implies \dfrac{100}{P}\cdot\dfrac{0.2}{0.8}=10\] \[\dfrac{25}{P}=10 \implies P=2.5\] The new price \(= 0.8 \times 2.5 = \) Rs. 2. (Check: at Rs. 2.5 he buys 40; at Rs. 2 he buys 50 - exactly 10 more.)

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Question 58archived

After deducting 60% from a certain number and then deducting 15% from the remaining, 1428 is left. What was the initial number?

  1. A
    4200
  2. B
    3962
  3. C
    4150
  4. D
    4300
Show answer
A. 4200

After a 60% cut, 40% remains; after a further 15% cut, 85% of that remains. The retained fraction is: \[0.40 \times 0.85 = 0.34\] So \(0.34x = 1428\), giving: \[x = \dfrac{1428}{0.34} = 4200\] Therefore the initial number is 4200.

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Question 59archived

A train travels 40% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, 140 km away at the same time. On the way the train takes 25 minutes for stopping at the stations. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?

  1. A
    67
  2. B
    134.4
  3. C
    145.9
  4. D
    160
Show answer
B. 134.4

Let the car's speed be \(S_c\); then the train's speed is \(S_t = 1.4 S_c\). The car's travel time equals the train's running time plus its 25-minute halt. Step 1 - Equation of times (stop \(=\tfrac{25}{60}=\tfrac{5}{12}\) h): \[\dfrac{140}{S_c} = \dfrac{140}{S_t} + \dfrac{5}{12}\] Step 2 - Substitute \(S_c = S_t/1.4\): \[\dfrac{140 \times 1.4}{S_t} - \dfrac{140}{S_t} = \dfrac{5}{12} \implies \dfrac{56}{S_t}=\dfrac{5}{12}\] Step 3 - Solve: \[S_t = \dfrac{56 \times 12}{5} = 134.4 \text{ km/hr}\] Therefore the train's speed is 134.4 km/hr.

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Question 60archived

A certain sum of money triples itself in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years it will be five times?

  1. A
    5
  2. B
    8
  3. C
    10
  4. D
    15
Show answer
C. 10

Under simple interest the interest earned is proportional to time. Tripling means interest \(= 2P\) earned in 5 years. To become 5 times, interest needed \(= 4P\), which is twice as much, so it takes twice the time: \[T = 5 \times \dfrac{4P}{2P} = 10 \text{ years}\] Therefore the required time is 10 years.

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Question 61archived

If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x 64 + x 121 ?

  1. A
    0
  2. B
    1
  3. C
    2
  4. D
    –2
Show answer
C. 2

\(x + \dfrac{1}{x} = 2\) implies \(x^2 - 2x + 1 = 0\), i.e. \((x-1)^2 = 0\), so \(x = 1\). Any power of 1 is 1, hence: \[x^{64} + x^{121} = 1 + 1 = 2\] Therefore the value is 2.

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Question 62archived

If x = 6 + 2√6, then what is the value of \(\sqrt{(x – 1)} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{(x – 1)}}\) ?

  1. A
    2√3
  2. B
    3√2
  3. C
    2√2
  4. D
    3√3
Show answer
A. 2√3

Step 1 - Simplify \(x-1\): \[x - 1 = 5 + 2\sqrt{6} = (\sqrt{3})^2 + (\sqrt{2})^2 + 2\sqrt{3}\sqrt{2} = (\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2})^2\] So \(\sqrt{x-1} = \sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}\). Step 2 - Rationalise the reciprocal: \[\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}} = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}}{(\sqrt{3})^2-(\sqrt{2})^2} = \sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}\] Step 3 - Add: \[(\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}) + (\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}) = 2\sqrt{3}\] Therefore the value is \(2\sqrt{3}\).

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Question 63archived

If a + b + c = 27, then what is the value of (a – 7) 3+ (b – 9) 3+ (c – 11) 3– 3(a – 7)(b – 9)(c – 11)?

  1. A
    0
  2. B
    9
  3. C
    27
  4. D
    81
Show answer
A. 0

Let \(x=a-7,\ y=b-9,\ z=c-11\). Then: \[x+y+z = (a+b+c) - 27 = 27 - 27 = 0\] By the identity, when \(x+y+z = 0\) we have \(x^3+y^3+z^3 - 3xyz = 0\). Therefore the value of the expression is 0.

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Question 64archived

If x = (2√15)/(√3 + √5), then what is the value of (x + √5)/(x – √5) + (x + √3)/(x – √3) ?

  1. A
    √5
  2. B
    √3
  3. C
    √15
  4. D
    2
Show answer
D. 2

Write \(x = \dfrac{2\sqrt{3}\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5}}\). Then \(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{5}} = \dfrac{2\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5}}\); by componendo-dividendo: \[\dfrac{x+\sqrt{5}}{x-\sqrt{5}} = \dfrac{3\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{5}} = \dfrac{14+4\sqrt{15}}{-2} = -7 - 2\sqrt{15}\] Similarly \(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{3}} = \dfrac{2\sqrt{5}}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5}}\) gives: \[\dfrac{x+\sqrt{3}}{x-\sqrt{3}} = \dfrac{3\sqrt{5}+\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{5}-\sqrt{3}} = \dfrac{18+4\sqrt{15}}{2} = 9 + 2\sqrt{15}\] Adding: \((-7-2\sqrt{15}) + (9+2\sqrt{15}) = \mathbf{2}\).

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Question 65archived

The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm and each of the equal sides is 5/6 times of the base. What is the area (in cm 2) of the triangle?

  1. A
    39
  2. B
    48
  3. C
    57
  4. D
    64
Show answer
B. 48

Let the base be \(b\) and the equal side \(a = \tfrac{5}{6}b\). Perimeter: \[2a + b = 32 \implies \dfrac{10b}{6} + b = 32 \implies \dfrac{8b}{3}=32 \implies b=12\] So \(b=12\) cm and \(a=10\) cm. The altitude to the base satisfies (Pythagoras on the half-triangle with leg 6): \[h = \sqrt{10^2 - 6^2} = \sqrt{64} = 8 \text{ cm}\] \[\text{Area} = \tfrac{1}{2} \times 12 \times 8 = 48 \text{ cm}^2\] Therefore the area is 48 cm2.

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Question 66archived

If length of each side of a rhombus PQRS is 8 cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then what is the length (in cm) of QS?

  1. A
    4√5
  2. B
    6
  3. C
    8
  4. D
    12
Show answer
C. 8

In rhombus PQRS, all sides equal 8 cm. Adjacent angles are supplementary, so \(\angle QRS = 180^\circ - 120^\circ = 60^\circ\). Consider \(\triangle QRS\): \(QR = RS = 8\) cm with included angle \(60^\circ\). Since it is isosceles with a \(60^\circ\) vertex angle, the base angles are \((180^\circ - 60^\circ)/2 = 60^\circ\) each, making \(\triangle QRS\) equilateral. Therefore QS = QR = 8 cm.

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Question 67archived

In the given figure, ABC is a triangle. The bisectors of internal DB and external DC interest at D. If ∠BDC = 48°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠A?

Question figure
  1. A
    48
  2. B
    96
  3. C
    100
  4. D
    114
Show answer
B. 96

Given: The bisectors of internal DB and external DC interest at D. ∠BDC = 48° Calculation: Using Exterior angle property in ΔBDC ⇒ y + 48 = x ⇒ x - y = 48° ......(i) From ΔABC, ⇒ ∠ACB = 180 – 2y – ∠A ......(ii) From ΔBCD, ⇒ ∠ACB = 180 – y – x – 48 ......(iii) Comparing (ii) and (iii) ⇒ 180 – 2y – ∠A = 180 – y – x – 48 ⇒ ∠A = x – y + 48 Using (i) ⇒ ∠A = 48 + 48 = 96 o ∴ The value (in degrees) of ∠A is 96°.

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Question 68archived

In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, and ∠DCE = 45°. If CD = 10√2cm, then what is the length (in cm) of AC? CB = BD

Question figure
  1. A
    14
  2. B
    15.5
  3. C
    18.5
  4. D
    20
Show answer
C. 18.5

Step 1 — Tangent–chord angle. CE is tangent at C, so the radius OC is perpendicular to CE. Given \(\angle DCE = 45^\circ\): \(\angle OCB = 90^\circ - 45^\circ = 45^\circ\) Step 2 — Half-chord. Since CB = BD, B is the midpoint of CD, and OB ⟂ CD. So \(CB = \dfrac{10\sqrt{2}}{2} = 5\sqrt{2}\) cm and \(\angle OBC = 90^\circ\). Step 3 — Solve right triangle OBC. \(\cos 45^\circ = \dfrac{CB}{OC} \Rightarrow OC = 5\sqrt{2}\cdot\sqrt{2} = 10\) cm (radius). \(\tan 45^\circ = \dfrac{CB}{OB} \Rightarrow OB = 5\sqrt{2}\) cm. Step 4 — Compute AC. AB = OA + OB = 10 + 5√2 ≈ 17.07 cm. In right triangle ABC (with ∠ABC = 90°): \(AC^2 = AB^2 + BC^2 = (10+5\sqrt{2})^2 + (5\sqrt{2})^2\) \(= 100 + 100\sqrt{2} + 50 + 50 \approx 341.4\) \(AC \approx \sqrt{341.4} \approx 18.5\) cm. Therefore, AC ≈ 18.5 cm.

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Question 69archived

What is the simplified value of \(sin2A\over{(1+cos2A)}\) ?

  1. A
    tanA
  2. B
    cotA
  3. C
    sinA
  4. D
    cosA
Show answer
A. tanA

Apply the double-angle identities \(\sin 2A = 2\sin A\cos A\) and \(1+\cos 2A = 2\cos^2 A\): \[\frac{\sin 2A}{1+\cos 2A}=\frac{2\sin A\cos A}{2\cos^2 A}=\frac{\sin A}{\cos A}=\tan A\] Hence the simplified value is tan A.

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Question 70archived

What is the simplified value of \({\left( {\frac{{\sec A}}{{\cot A +\tan A}}} \right)^2}\)

  1. A
    1 – cos2A
  2. B
    2sin2A
  3. C
    sec2A
  4. D
    cosec2A
Show answer
A. 1 – cos2A

Simplify the denominator using \(\sin^2 A+\cos^2 A=1\): \[\cot A+\tan A=\frac{\cos A}{\sin A}+\frac{\sin A}{\cos A}=\frac{1}{\sin A\cos A}\] So the inner expression becomes: \[\frac{\sec A}{\cot A+\tan A}=\frac{1/\cos A}{1/(\sin A\cos A)}=\sin A\] Squaring: \(\sin^2 A = 1-\cos^2 A\). Hence the answer is 1 − cos2A.

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Question 71archived

What is the simplified value of 1 + tanA tan \(A\over2\) ?

  1. A
    sinA/2
  2. B
    cosA
  3. C
    secA
  4. D
    sinA
Show answer
C. secA

Write tangents as sin/cos and combine over a common denominator: \[1+\tan A\tan\tfrac{A}{2}=\frac{\cos A\cos\tfrac{A}{2}+\sin A\sin\tfrac{A}{2}}{\cos A\cos\tfrac{A}{2}}\] The numerator is \(\cos(A-\tfrac{A}{2})=\cos\tfrac{A}{2}\) by the cosine-difference formula. Substituting: \[\frac{\cos\tfrac{A}{2}}{\cos A\cos\tfrac{A}{2}}=\frac{1}{\cos A}=\sec A\] Hence the simplified value is sec A.

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Question 72archived

How many shoes are there of Reebok brand?

  1. A
    230
  2. B
    276
  3. C
    286
  4. D
    216
Show answer
B. 276

Shoes in reebok brand = 23% of 1200 ⇒ (23/100) × 1200 ∴ 276 shoes

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Question 73archived

What is the difference in number of shoes of Puma and Vans?

  1. A
    96
  2. B
    156
  3. C
    84
  4. D
    112
Show answer
A. 96

Difference in % of Puma and Vanes ⇒ 21 – 13 = 8% Difference in number of shoes of puma and vanes is 8% of 1200 ⇒ (8/100) × 1200 ∴ 96 shoes

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Question 74archived

The difference between the number of shoes of Reebok and Nike is same as the difference between which of the following two brands?

  1. A
    Puma and Adidas
  2. B
    Reebok and Adidas
  3. C
    Vans and Nike
  4. D
    Nike and Adidas
Show answer
C. Vans and Nike

The difference between the number of shoes of Reebok and Nike is ⇒ 23 – 18 = 5% of 1200 this is same as that of Vanes and Nike (18 – 13 = 5% of 1200) ∴ Answer is 3

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Question 75archived

Puma shoes are how much percent more than the Nike Shoes?

  1. A
    14.28
  2. B
    16.66
  3. C
    25
  4. D
    21.33
Show answer
B. 16.66

Puma shoes are 21% of 1200 ⇒ (21/100) × 1200 ⇒ 252 shoes Nike shoes are 18% of 1200 ⇒ (18/100) × 1200 ⇒ 216 shoes % of puma shoes more than that of Nike shoes is given as ⇒ (252 – 216) × 100/(216) ∴ answer is 16.66 %

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Question 76archived

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. No sooner did I come out of my home to go to the market when it started raining heavily which drenched me completely.

  1. A
    No sooner did I come out of my home
  2. B
    when it started raining heavily
  3. C
    to go to the market
  4. D
    which drenched me completely
Show answer
B. when it started raining heavily

The correlative pair No sooner … than is fixed in standard English; "No sooner" must be followed by "than", never by "when". The error therefore lies in the segment "when it started raining heavily", where "when" should be "than". Corrected: "No sooner did I come out of my home to go to the market than it started raining heavily…"

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Question 77archived

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Unless you don't obey your elders you will not succeed in your life.

  1. A
    Unless you don't obey
  2. B
    you will not
  3. C
    your elders
  4. D
    succeed in your life.
Show answer
A. Unless you don't obey

"Unless" already carries a negative sense ("if not"), so pairing it with another negative like "don't" creates a double negative. The faulty segment is "Unless you don't obey"; it should read "Unless you obey your elders…" (or "If you don't obey your elders…").

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Question 78archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Fourteen kilometres ______, not a short distance, to reach to my office daily.

  1. A
    are
  2. B
    has
  3. C
    have
  4. D
    is
Show answer
D. is

A measurement of distance, time, or money is treated as a single unit and takes a singular verb. "Fourteen kilometres" denotes one distance, so the verb must be is (e.g., "Ten miles is a long way"). "Are" and "have" are plural; "has" is the wrong verb (we need a form of "to be" to introduce the appositive "not a short distance").

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Question 79archived

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Good reading ______ the sense of liberal educated mind.

  1. A
    beliefs
  2. B
    leads
  3. C
    reflects
  4. D
    starts
Show answer
C. reflects

The sentence needs a third-person singular verb that links "good reading" to the qualities of an educated mind. Reflects (= shows, mirrors) fits perfectly: good reading mirrors the sense of a liberal educated mind. "Beliefs" is a noun; "leads the sense" and "starts the sense" are unnatural collocations.

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Question 80archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Frivolous

  1. A
    Captious
  2. B
    Wise
  3. C
    Puerile
  4. D
    Spiritual
Show answer
C. Puerile

Frivolous means silly, trivial, lacking seriousness. Puerile means childishly silly and trivial — the closest match. "Captious" means fault-finding, "Wise" is the opposite, and "Spiritual" is unrelated. Hence the synonym is Puerile.

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Question 81archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given. Petrify

  1. A
    Adorn
  2. B
    Calm
  3. C
    Curious
  4. D
    Harden
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D. Harden

Petrify means to turn into stone or to make rigid/solid (also: to terrify into stillness). Harden — to make firm or solid — directly matches this core sense. "Adorn" (decorate), "Calm" (soothe, the opposite of terrify), and "Curious" (eager to know) are unrelated. Synonym: Harden.

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Question 82archived

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. GREGARIOUS

  1. A
    Affable
  2. B
    Genial
  3. C
    Introvert
  4. D
    Urbane
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C. Introvert

Gregarious means sociable, fond of company. Its opposite is someone who prefers solitude and is reserved — an Introvert. "Affable" and "Genial" are synonyms (friendly), and "Urbane" (refined, polished) describes manner rather than sociability. Antonym: Introvert.

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Question 83archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given. Tremulous

  1. A
    Feeble
  2. B
    Frugal
  3. C
    Stable
  4. D
    Vital
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C. Stable

Tremulous means shaking, quivering, or unsteady (also nervous). The direct opposite is Stable — firm, steady, not shaking. "Feeble" denotes weakness, "Frugal" means economical, and "Vital" means essential/energetic — none captures the steady/unshaking contrast. Antonym: Stable.

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Question 84archived

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. The alpha and the omega

  1. A
    Happy and sad
  2. B
    The beginning and the end
  3. C
    The love and the hatred
  4. D
    Truth and dare
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B. The beginning and the end

Alpha is the first letter and Omega the last letter of the Greek alphabet. The idiom "the alpha and the omega" therefore stands for the entirety of something from start to finish, i.e. the beginning and the end. The remaining options (happy/sad, love/hatred, truth/dare) merely describe contrasting pairs and do not capture the sense of totality.

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Question 85archived

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Throw up the sponge

  1. A
    To attack
  2. B
    To laugh at someone
  3. C
    To surrender
  4. D
    To talk loudly
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C. To surrender

The idiom "throw up the sponge" (a variant of "throw in the towel") comes from boxing: a fighter's corner threw the sponge into the ring to signal that the fighter could not continue. It therefore means to surrender or give up. "To attack," "to laugh at someone," and "to talk loudly" bear no link to the act of conceding defeat.

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Question 86archived

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. I had (a few) eggs in the fridge, so we need to go to the market to buy them.

  1. A
    a little
  2. B
    few
  3. C
    little
  4. D
    No improvement
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B. few

With plural countable nouns, "a few" implies a small but sufficient number (positive), whereas "few" implies hardly any (negative/insufficient). The clause "so we need to go to the market to buy them" signals that the eggs at home are insufficient. Hence "few" is correct. "A little" and "little" pair only with uncountable nouns, so they are ruled out.

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Question 87archived

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. My brother is indifferent (about) whatever I say.

  1. A
    in
  2. B
    of
  3. C
    to
  4. D
    No improvement
Show answer
C. to

The adjective "indifferent" takes the preposition "to" when naming the object of indifference (e.g., "indifferent to criticism," "indifferent to her feelings"). "Indifferent about/in/of" are non-standard collocations. The corrected sentence reads: "My brother is indifferent to whatever I say."

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Question 88archived

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. A funeral poem

  1. A
    Elegy
  2. B
    Pandemonium
  3. C
    Parody
  4. D
    Sonnet
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A. Elegy

An elegy is a poem of serious reflection, typically a lament for the dead — exactly matching "a funeral poem." Pandemonium means wild uproar, a parody is a comic imitation, and a sonnet is a 14-line poem defined by form rather than subject. None denotes a mourning poem.

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Question 89archived

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrases. One who walks in sleep

  1. A
    Drover
  2. B
    Fastidious
  3. C
    Numismatist
  4. D
    Somnambulist
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D. Somnambulist

The word comes from Latin somnus (sleep) + ambulare (to walk). A somnambulist is therefore literally "one who walks in sleep." A drover drives livestock, fastidious describes a fussy person, and a numismatist studies coins — none relates to sleepwalking.

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Question 90archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Gaurantee
  2. B
    Itinerary
  3. C
    Magnificent
  4. D
    Writing
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A. Gaurantee

The correct spelling is "Guarantee" (g-u-a-r-a-n-t-e-e), not "Gaurantee" — the option swaps the order of u and a after the initial G. "Itinerary," "Magnificent," and "Writing" are all spelt correctly. Hence Gaurantee is the incorrectly spelt word.

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Question 91archived

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. A
    Etiquete
  2. B
    Exquisite
  3. C
    Restaurant
  4. D
    Scavenger
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A. Etiquete

The correct spelling is "Etiquette" with a double t and a final -tte (from French). The option "Etiquete" omits one t. "Exquisite," "Restaurant," and "Scavenger" are all spelt correctly. Therefore Etiquete is the incorrectly spelt word.

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Question 92archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P-But he did not know how to find one at that hour. Q-It was his first visit to the city and he didn't know where to go. R-Mohanlal's train was late and it reached Kolkata a little after midnight. S-He thought he would go to a choultry where he would not have to pay rent.

  1. A
    PSQR
  2. B
    QRSP
  3. C
    RQSP
  4. D
    RSQP
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C. RQSP

R introduces the subject and event ("Mohanlal's train... reached Kolkata after midnight") — the natural opener since the other sentences use the pronoun "he." Q follows as the immediate problem ("first visit... didn't know where to go"). S presents his thought of going to a choultry, and P ("But he did not know how to find one at that hour") supplies the contrast that closes the paragraph. Hence the order is RQSP.

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Question 93archived

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P-And slowly, you reach the pinnacle of self-awareness, experiencing a unity with all life. Q-If you transform your energy positively, it naturally becomes compassion and love. R-Once you experientially are a part of everything then nobody needs to teach you morality. S-Then you can do something to improve the situation, but without anger.

  1. A
    PQRS
  2. B
    QPRS
  3. C
    RQPS
  4. D
    RSPQ
Show answer
B. QPRS

Q is the opener — it states the conditional premise ("If you transform your energy positively...") without depending on any prior sentence. P follows with "And slowly, you reach the pinnacle of self-awareness... unity with all life." R then builds on that unity ("Once you experientially are a part of everything... morality"), and S concludes with the resulting action ("Then you can do something to improve the situation, but without anger"). Hence the order is QPRS.

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Question 94archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. Ram was singing a beautiful song for his mother.

  1. A
    A beautiful song was being sung by Ram for his mother.
  2. B
    A beautiful song was sang by Ram for his mother.
  3. C
    A beautiful song was sung by Ram for his mother.
  4. D
    A beautiful song was sung for his mother by Ram.
Show answer
A. A beautiful song was being sung by Ram for his mother.

The active sentence is in the past continuous tense ("was singing"). The corresponding passive structure is: Object + was/were + being + past participle (V3) + by + subject. Applying this: "a beautiful song" (object, singular) + "was being" + "sung" (V3 of sing) + "by Ram" + "for his mother" gives "A beautiful song was being sung by Ram for his mother." Options using only "was sung" shift the tense to simple past, and "was sang" is grammatically wrong (V2 cannot follow "was").

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Question 95archived

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. Priya advised me not to go to school the next day.

  1. A
    "Don't go to school next day" Priya said to me.
  2. B
    "Don't go to school tomorrow" Priya said to me.
  3. C
    Priya said, "Will you not go to school tomorrow?"
  4. D
    Priya told me that, "Don't go to school tomorrow."
Show answer
B. "Don't go to school tomorrow" Priya said to me.

The indirect form reports a negative imperative ("advised... not to go"), so the direct form must begin with "Don't go...". The time-marker "the next day" in indirect speech reverts to "tomorrow" in direct speech. This gives "Don't go to school tomorrow," Priya said to me. Option 1 keeps "next day" (wrong time word); Option 3 turns it into a question; Option 4 mixes "told me that" with direct-speech quotation, which is ungrammatical.

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Question 96archived

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone

  1. A
    affected
  2. B
    effected
  3. C
    interrupted
  4. D
    measured
Show answer
A. affected

Job performance is affected by many factors — meaning influenced or impacted. "Effected" means brought about/caused, which wrongly implies the factors create performance itself. "Interrupted" suggests temporary stoppage, not general influence. "Measured" describes evaluation, not the relationship between factors and performance. The standard collocation is "affected by" when describing influence.

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Question 97archived

motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be.

  1. A
    higher
  2. B
    larger
  3. C
    lower
  4. D
    smaller
Show answer
A. higher

The construction "The higher... the ______..." is a parallel comparative requiring a comparative adjective in the second clause. Performance is described in terms of level, which takes higher/lower, not larger/smaller (used for size/quantity). Since greater ability and motivation produce a positive correlation with performance, the matching comparative is higher.

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Question 98archived

However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level

  1. A
    certain
  2. B
    desired
  3. C
    increased
  4. D
    optimal
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D. optimal

The clue is "beyond an ______ level... dysfunctional result... anxiety" — the blank must denote the ideal peak past which extra motivation becomes harmful. Optimal means the most favourable point, fitting exactly. "Certain" and "increased" are too vague; "desired" expresses preference, not the performance peak implied by the Yerkes-Dodson-style logic of the passage.

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Question 99archived

tends to ______ a dysfunctional result

  1. A
    deduce
  2. B
    introduce
  3. C
    produce
  4. D
    reduce
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C. produce

The verb must mean "cause/bring about" a dysfunctional result. Produce means to cause something to happen, fitting perfectly. "Deduce" means to infer by reasoning, "introduce" means to bring into use/existence (weaker causal link), and "reduce" means to lessen — the opposite of creating a result. Hence produce.

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Question 100archived

because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

  1. A
    abandoned
  2. B
    accompanied
  3. C
    affiliated
  4. D
    amalgamated
Show answer
B. accompanied

The blank takes a past participle meaning "goes together with". Accompanied by is the standard collocation expressing that excessive motivation comes along with anxiety. "Abandoned" (left behind), "affiliated" (formally connected to an organisation), and "amalgamated" (merged into one) do not fit this co-occurrence sense.

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